# 600+ Surveying MCQs - Civil Engineering

1.  The method of deflection distances is used in which of the following cases?.
B. Railway survey.
C. Land survey.
D. Town planning survey.

2.  The method of producing offsets from the chords can also be named as____________.
A. Rankine's method.
B. Bisection of chords.
C. Deflection distances.
D. Two-theodolite method.

3.  Which of the following indicates the formula used in deflection distances?.
A. On = Cn  + (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R.
B. On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2+R.
C. On = Cn (Cn-1 – Cn)/2*R.
D. On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R.
Answer = On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R

4.  Which of the following process can be adopted as an alternative of theodolite?.
A. Bisection of chords.
B. Deflection distances.
C. Ordinates by long chords.
D. Rankine's method.

5.  Errors in deflection distances method are distributed to all the points..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

6.  Closing error can also be known as__________.
A. Absolute error.
B. Zero error.
C. Subjecting error.
D. Discrepancy.

7.  While producing offsets by deflection distances method, the last offset must coincide with the beginning..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

8.  Determine the first offset if the chord length is given as 23.98m and the radius is given as 5.87m..
A. 84.98 m.
B. 48.98 m.
C. 48.89 m.
D. 84.89 m.

9.  Find the value of last offset, if the lengths of first and second chords are given as 45.87m and 62.87m with radius of curve 69.76m and length of chain being 30m..
A. 38.987 m.
B. 83.987 m.
C. 38.697 m.
D. 83.697 m.

10.  Find the value of chord length if the offset is given as 36.54m and the radius include 3.43m..
A. 15.38 m.
B. 51.83 m.
C. 15.83 m.
D. 87.54 m.

11.  A curve which is having a varying radius is called_____________.
A. Simple curve.
B. Compound curve.
C. Transition curve.
D. Reverse curve.

12.  In order to prevent the case of overturning, which of the following is provided?.
A. Super elevation.
B. Reverse curve.
C. Simple curve.
D. Compound curve.

13.  The provision of equilibrium cant can be seen in case of__________.
A. Curves.
B. Mountains.
C. Highways.
D. Railways.

14.  Side friction factor is used in which of the following cases?.
A. Reverse curve.
B. Transition curve.
C. Simple curve.
D. Compound curve.

15.  With increase in super elevation there must be subsequent increase in centrifugal force for balancing it..
A. TRUE.
B.  False.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

16.  Length of transition curve can be given as__________.
A. L = r tan(Î´/2).
B. L = ne.
C. L = n – e.
D. L = n + e.

17.  Which of the following methods doesn't describe the method of finding length of transition curve?.
B. Time rate.
C. Bisection of arcs.
D. Rate of Change of radial acceleration.

18.  Among the methods available for determining the length of the curve, which is commonly used?.
A. Bisection of arcs.
B. Time rate.
C. Arbitrary method.
D. Rate of change of radial acceleration.

19.  Clothoid is also known as___________.
A. Glover's spiral.
B. Froude's equation.
C. Cartesian curve.
D. Cubic spiral.

20.  Froude's transition is also known as___________.
A. Clothoid.
B. Cubic parabola.
C. Cubic spiral.
D. Glover's spiral.

21.  Determine the super elevation, if the width of the road can be given as 2.96m, radius of curve as 62.96m, vehicle speed = 56m/s..
A. 51.303m.
B. 51.03m.
C. 15.03m.
D. 15.3m.

22.  If the super elevation for a road is given as 24m, find the length of transition curve..
A. 15.6 km.
B. 15.6 m.
C. 15.6 cm.
D. 15.6 mm.

23.  Using intrinsic equation, find the value of the length of curve between two points of a 45m transition curve having radius 24.76m with an inclination of 8˚43êžŒ..
A. 319.37m.
B. 913.37m.
C. 139.73m.
D. 139.37m.

24. If the radius of curvature of a curve being 45.42m with an inclination of 7˚52êžŒ. The value of s and L corresponds to 2 and 56m respectively, find the total tangent length of a transition curve..
A. 03.02m.
B. 30.02m.
C. 2.3m.
D. 3.2m.

25. In a cubic parabola, if the value of x co-ordinate is 7, radius of the curve is given as 42.69m and the length of the curve as 24m. Find the y co-ordinate..
A. 2.76.
B. 1.05.
C. 0.05.
D. 5.0.

26.  Which among the following indicates the correct necessity of classification of the triangulation system?.
A. For measuring in any way.
B. For accuracy in measurement.
C. For covering the entire field.
D. For reducing the work process.
Answer = For accuracy in measurement

27.  Among the classification of triangulation system, which posses the highest order?.
A. Primary.
B. Secondary.
C. Tertiary.
D. Quaternary.

28.  In which of the following areas, the usage of primary triangulation is done?.
A. Measuring fields.
B. Measuring built up lands.
C. Measuring earths figure.
D. Measuring unused lands.

29.  Length of base line in primary triangulation is given as____________.
A. 1.5 – 5 km.
B. 0.5 – 10 km.
C. 0.5 – 3 km.
D. 5 – 15 km.
Answer = 5 – 15 km

30.  When compared to primary triangulation, secondary triangulation is having smaller triangles..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

31.  Among the classification of triangulation, which will give the precise value?.
A. Quaternary.
B. Tertiary.
C. Secondary.
D. Primary.

32.  Which classification involves the formation of more number of triangles?.
A. Primary.
B. Secondary.
C. Tertiary.
D. Quaternary.

33.  Which triangulation system has the least probability of occurring errors?.
A. Primary.
B. Secondary.
C. Quaternary.
D. Tertiary.

34.  Which triangulation system is will not give more accurate results?.
B. Single chain.
C. Double chain.
D. Central point.

35.  Covering whole survey area with primary triangulation but filling the gaps with secondary and tertiary triangulation involves in which among the following processes?.
A. Central system.
B. Quaternary triangulation.
C. Grid iron system.
D. Well conditioned system.

36.  Which of the following is the most important process in the triangulation system?.
A. Towers.
B. Signals.
C. Base line measurement.
D. Reconnaissance.

37.  The length of the tenth base is__________.
A. 1.7 miles.
B. 2.7 miles.
C. 4.7 miles.
D. 6.7 miles.

38.  Ground which is having undulations is taken into consideration while setting base line..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

39.  Which of the following is not a form of base measuring apparatus?.
A. Flexible apparatus.
B. Rigid bars.
C. Spiral apparatus.
D. Colby apparatus.

40.  Corrections can be applied without measuring the temperature in field..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

41.  Colby apparatus will come under which of the following forms?.
A. Optical apparatus.
B. Flexible apparatus.
C. Rigid bars.

42.  Which of the following indicates a flexible apparatus?.
A. Copper tape.
B. Steel tape.
C. Chain.
D. Iron tape.

43.  Which of the following methods is having more amount of flexibility?.
A. Flexible apparatus.
B. Rigid bars.
C. Colby apparatus.

44.  The formula for correction for temperature is ___________.
A. C = Î± (Tm – T0) L.
B. C = Î± (Tm – T0) + L.
C. C = Î± (Tm + T0) L.
D. C = Î± (Tm – T0) / L.
Answer = C = Î± (Tm – T0) L

45.  What will be the correction for absolute length of the length of the line is 20m, correction is 2m and length of the tape is 30m?.
A. 1.43.
B. 1.34.
C. 31.42.
D. 2.65.

46.  Determine the correction for the temperature, if the mean temperature is 30˚C and the temperature during standardization of tape is about 28˚C with length of the line 9m..
A. 8*10-6.
B. 81*10-6.
C. 18*10-6.
D. 18*106.

47.  Apply correction for tension, if the pull applied during measurement is 15N and standard pull is about 8N. Measured length is about 10m, cross-section of the tape is 5 sq. cm with E 2*107 N/sq. cm..
A. 7*107.
B. 6*107.
C. 7*1010.
D. 7*102.

48.  If the weight of the tape is 1kg having length 100m with 6 equal bays. The pull applied will be 9N, calculate the correction for sag..
A. 0.01042.
B. 0.0142.
C. 0.142.
D. 0.00142.

49. Calculate the correction for misalignment, if the length of the line is 18m with perpendicular of 3m..
A. 0.52.
B. 0.25.
C. 2.05.
D. 5.02.

50. What will be the correction for slope, if the length of the line is given as 20m with slope of 5˚46êžŒ?.
A. 1.101.
B. 0.011.
C. 0.101.
D. 1.001.

51.  A structure erected over a station can be determined as___________.
A. Signal.
B. Tower.
C. Instrument station.
D. Satellite station.

52.  The amount of elevation depends on which of the following characteristics?.
A. Instrument used.
C. Slope level.
D. Characteristics of terrain.

53.  Which type of structure (tower) can be used for small heights?.
A. Masonry structure.
B. Wooden structure.
C. Steel structure.
D. Timber structure.

54.  What is the height of a Bilby tower?.
A. 10 m.
B. 20 m.
C. 30 m.
D. 50 m.

55.  Which of the following determines the exact position of the observed station?.
A. Signal.
B. Tower.
C. Theodolite.
D. Chain.

56.  Which of the following is not a classification of signal?.
A. Sun signal.
B. Night signal.
C. Daylight signal.
D. Polarised signal.

57.  A signal must contain phase..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

58.  Opaque signal is having a range of ___________.
A. 50 km.
B. 40 km.
C. 30 km.
D. 80 km.

59.  In which of the following cases, a pole signal is used?.
A. Non-Luminous signal.
B. Luminous signal.
C. Night signal.
D. Polarised signal.

60.  Which among the following indicates the instrument used in Sun signals?.
A. Polarised signal.
B. Night signal.
C. Non – Luminous signal.
D. Luminous signal.

61.  What will be the face correction made on bright line, if the radius of the signal is given as 24m, angle with which the station points make with the sun is given as 24˚12êžŒ and the distance between the station points is given as 85m?.
A. 953˚11êžŒ.
B. 59˚11êžŒ.
C. 359˚11êžŒ.
D. 593˚11êžŒ.

62.  In the process of reconnaissance, map reference is taken..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

63.  Which of the following is not necessary for Reconnaissance process?.
A. Sextant.
B. Theodolite.
C. Chain.
D. Aneroid Barometer.

64.  Height of the instrument depends upon __________.
A. Elevation differences.
B. Type of terrain present.
C. Type of instrument used.
D. Distance between stations.

65.  Height of the station above datum is given as __________.
A. h=D2(1−2m)2R
B. h=D2(1−2m)2
C. h=D2(1+2m)2R
D. h=D(1−2m)2R

66.  In the process of Reconnaissance, which of the following is determined?.
A. Slope.
B. Elevation.
D. Distance between stations.

67.  Reconnaissance process will give best output only on elevated grounds..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

68.  While calculating h2 with reference to h1, line of sight must be ______ m above the point of tangency..
A. 5-6 m.
B. 4-5 m.
C. 3-4 m.
D. 2-3 m.

69.  For proper identification, station marks are marked with___________.
A. Wood.
B. Plastic.
C. Copper.
D. Concrete.

70.  Besides theodolite which among the following is used for taking angles..
A. Compass.
B. Only theodolite.
C. Total station.
D. Sextant.

71.  Determine the height of the station if the distance between the visible horizon is 44km..
A. 121.54m.
B. 211.54m.
C. 121.45m.
D. 211.45m.

72.  Find the distance between the visible horizon, if the height of the station is given as 2.98m..
A. 8.66m.
B. 6.88m.
C. 8.68m.
D. 2.86m.

73.  Which of the following can describe the main purpose of the satellite station?.
A. Act as false station.
B. Act as true station.
C. Measuring length.
D. Measuring diameter.
Answer = Act as false station

74.  The recordings taken from eccentric station are more precise..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

75.  Which of the following indicates the formula of phase correction?.
A. Î² = 206265 + d * sin (Î³) / a.
B. Î² = 206265 * d – sin (Î³) / a.
C. Î² = 20265 * d * sin (Î³) / a.
D. Î² = 206265 * d * sin (Î³) / a.
Answer = Î² = 206265 * d * sin (Î³) / a

76.  Which of the following method can be adopted if there is any object in the point of instrument station?.
A. Centric station.
B. True station.
C. Satellite station.
D. Controlled station.

77.  Determine the true angle, if the station is placed at the second point having angles Î¸, Î± and Î² as 20˚45êžŒ, 2˚31êžŒ and 7˚12êžŒ..
A. 52˚26êžŒ.
B. 25˚62êžŒ.
C. 25˚26êžŒ.
D. 26˚25êžŒ.

78.  Determine the eccentric station point if the station is 1.65m to the west and the distance between remaining two station points is given as 300m, with an angle of 10˚12êžŒ..
A. 200˚35êžŒ.
B. 2˚53êžŒ.
C. 202˚53êžŒ.
D. 200˚53êžŒ.

79.  Determine the corrected direction of the eccentric station if the value of D is given as 200m with a reflection of 9˚15êžŒ having a distance of 1.2m from the main station..
A. 198˚45êžŒ.
B. 198˚56êžŒ.
C. 189˚56êžŒ.
D. 918˚56êžŒ.

80.  Calculate the corrected angle if the values of Î¸, Î²1  and Î²2 are given as 50˚46êžŒ, 12˚24êžŒ and 13˚36êžŒ..
A. 94˚34êžŒ.
B. 49˚43êžŒ.
C. 4˚34êžŒ.
D. 49˚34êžŒ.

81.  Satellite station is also known as__________.
A. Centric station.
B. True station.
C. Eccentric station.
D. Instrument station.

82.  The laws of accidental errors follow which of the following principle?.
A. Normal equation.
B. Probability law.
C. Laws of weight.
D. Most probable value.

83.  Which of the following does not indicate the feature in laws of accidental errors?.
A. Negligible errors.
B. Small errors.
C. Large errors.
D. Positive errors.

84.  Most probable value is equal to which of the following?.
A. Differentiation.
B. Summation.
C. Arithmetic mean.
D. Normal equation.

85.  The value of mean square error can be given as__________.
A. (∑v2+n)1/2.
B. (∑v2*n)1/2.
C. (∑v/n)1/2.
D. (∑v2/n)1/2.

A. Normal equation.
B. Frequency of errors.
C. Probability curve.
D. Probability equation.

87.  Determine the probable error in a single measurement if the summation of the difference between mean and single observation is given as 8.76 in a series of 7 observations..
A. 0.98.
B. 0.93.
C. 9.08.
D. 0.89.

88.  Determine the probable error of measurements by using the different probable errors, which are given as 5.64, 2.98, 0.98 and 2.54..
A. 3.96.
B. 9.63.
C. 6.93.
D. 9.36.

89.  What will be the mean square error, if the readings were given as 2.654, 2.987, 2,432 and 2.543..
A. 3.305.
B. 0.335.
C. 0.305.
D. 30.35.

90.  If the value of error due to the single measurement is 6.54 for 10 observations, then calculate the value of average probable error..
A. 2.086.
B. 2.608.
C. 0.268.
D. 2.068.

91.  Find the number of observations if the mean square error and the summation of the difference between the individual and the mean series are given as 0.987 and 3.654..
A. 14.0.
B. 12.0.
C. 10.0.
D. 9.0.

92.  The principle of least squares can be formed from___________.
A. Probability equation.
B. Normal equation.
C. Celestial equation.
D. Observed equation.

93.  In the principle of least squares, residual error will be__________.
A. Maximum.
B. Minimum.
C. Negligible.
D. Nor error occurs.

94.  Which of the following indicates the formula of arithmetic mean?.
A. ∑V * n.
B. ∑V – n.
C. ∑V + n.
D. ∑V / n.

95.  If the value of number of observations is large and e is small then ∑e / n will be equal to__________.
A. Frequency.
B. True value.
C. Arithmetic mean.
D. Probable value.

96.  Which of the following indicates the fundamental of least squares?.
A. arithmetic mean should be maximized.
B. arithmetic mean should be zero.
C. arithmetic mean should be neutralized.
D. arithmetic mean should be minimized.
Answer = arithmetic mean should be minimized

97.  Which of the following value must always be positive in the principle of least squares?.
A. (N-(∑V/n))2.
B. (N*(∑V/n))2.
C. (N+(∑V/n))2.
D. (N-(∑V/n))0.

98.  In the process of least squares, sum of residuals must be equal to zero..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

99.  When number of observations is large, the arithmetic mean will be equal to true value..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

100.  Determine the arithmetic mean if the summation of the difference between individual and mean of the observations is given as 1.54 for 10 observations..
A. 0.154.
B. 0.514.
C. 0.145.
D. 1.405.

101.  Find the value of N if the sums of squares of two individual residuals are given as 24.98 and 13.76 respectively. The summation of the difference between individual and the mean of the readings is 3.32 for 8 observations..
A. 1.0.
B. 1.6.
C. 1.7.
D. 2.0.

102.  Which of the following can be used for finding a normal equation?.
A. Unknown values.
B. Algebraic coefficients.
C. Probability law.
D. Probability curve.

103.  Normal equation is used in case of________________.
A. Probability equation.
B. Arithmetic method.
C. Indirect method.
D. Direct method.

104.  Which of the following processes is a tedious one?.
A. Probability law.
B. Normal equation.
C. Probability equation.
D. Most probable value.

105.  Determine the normal equation for x for the equations, 5x+2y+3z-6 =0 and 2x+4y+6z-10 = 0, having equal weight..
A. 29x+18y+27z-50 =0.
B. 18x+29y+27z-50 =0.
C. 27x+18y+29z-50 =0.
D. 29x+81y+27z-50 =0.

106.  If different weights of the equations are involved then they are to be subtracted with the coefficients..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

107.  Formation of normal equation with unknown quantities must be multiplied with the algebraic coefficient..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

108.  Find the normal equation for y of the equations 2x+3y+4z-7 = 0, x-4y+6z-9 = 0, having weights 3 and 2 respectively..
A. 48x-32y+8z-72 = 0.
B. 32x-8y+48z-72 = 0.
C. 8x-32y+48z-72 = 0.
D. 8x-48y+32z-72 = 0.

109.  What will be the normal equation for z if the equations are given as 3x+9y+4z-43=0, 2x+6y+z-5=0. Assume these are having equal weights..
A. 17x+42y+47z-178=0.
B. 14x+17y+42z-178=0.
C. 14x+42y+17z-178=0.
D. 42x+14y+17z-178=0.

110.  A normal equation is formed by ____________.
A. Subtracting algebraic coefficients.
C. Dividing algebraic coefficients.
D. Multiplying algebraic coefficients.

111.  Which of the following represents the correct set of constants and variables present in a normal equation?.
A. 4 consonants, 3 variables.
B. 3 consonants, 4 variables.
C. 2 consonants, 2 variables.
D. 1 consonant, 1 variable.
Answer = 4 consonants, 3 variables

112.  Most probable value can be found by using a ______________.
A. Normal equation.
B. Probability law.
C. Probability curve.
D. Algebraic coefficients.

113.  Most probable value is not used in the determination of which of the following?.
A. Observations by conditions.
B. Indirect readings from unequal weights.
C. Observations from equal weights.
D. Probability curve.

114.  The Most probable value found by normal equation involves the usage of known values..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

115.  It is necessary for the observed equations to be accompanied with condition equation..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

116.  Most probable value determines certain observations. Which among them will give accurate value?.
A. Direct observation with unequal weights.
B. Indirect observation with weights.
C. Direct observation with weights.
D. Observation with condition equation.
Answer = Observation with condition equation

117.  Find the most probable value with the observations 2.76, 4.32, 9.87, 8.83 having equal weights..
A. 6.45.
B. 6.54.
C. 4.65.
D. 5.46.

118.  From which of the following cases, the value of most probable value can be easily determined?.
A. Indirect method.
B. Direct method.
C. Method of correlates.
D. From observations.

119.  Determine the most probable value of B from the equations B = 65˚21êžŒ40êžŒêžŒ weighing 3 and 2B = 132˚40êžŒ20êžŒêžŒ weighing 2..
A. 141˚18êžŒ52.7êžŒêžŒ.
B. 114˚18êžŒ52.7êžŒêžŒ.
C. 114˚8êžŒ52.7êžŒêžŒ.
D. 411˚18êžŒ52.7êžŒêžŒ.

120.  From the set of observations (1.87+ 9.73+ 9.22), find the most probable value. The weights of the observations are given as 4, 7, 9 respectively..
A. 2.97.
B. 9.72.
C. 7.92.
D. 7.29.

121.  The laws of weight are established on the basis of____________.
A. Observed equation.
B. Normal equation.
C. Least squares.
D. Probability equation.

122.  In the laws of weight, weight is inversely proportional to length..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

123.  Weight of the equation remains unchanged even when the signs in the equation are changed..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

124.  Find the arithmetic mean if the angles and their weights were given as 20˚42êžŒ3êžŒêžŒ, 20˚42êžŒ4êžŒêžŒ, 20˚42êžŒ6êžŒêžŒ and 2, 2, 2 respectively..
A. 20˚42êžŒ6.3êžŒêžŒ.
B. 20˚42êžŒ5.3êžŒêžŒ.
C. 20˚42êžŒ1.3êžŒêžŒ.
D. 20˚42êžŒ4.3êžŒêžŒ.

125.  Determine the weight of the weighted arithmetic mean if the angles and their weights are given as 40˚56êžŒ2êžŒêžŒ, 40˚56êžŒ7êžŒêžŒ, 40˚56êžŒ12êžŒêžŒ and 5, 4, 9 respectively..
A. 13.0.
B. 18.0.
C. 81.0.
D. 10.0.

126.  Find the weight of the algebraic sum of the two quantities given as 21˚43êžŒ10êžŒêžŒ, 54˚32êžŒ20êžŒêžŒ, having weights 5, 7 respectively..
A. 13*35.
B. 13/35.
C. 35/13.
D. 48.0.

127.  In order to form a normal equation, _____________ are needed..
A. Algebraic coefficients.
B. Probability equation.
C. Probability law.
D. Probability curve.

128.  Correlates can also be known as_____________.
A. Unknown multiples.
B. Known multiples.
C. Eccentric multiples.
D. Centric multiples.

129.  All conditions are to be collected and used in which of the following case?.
A. Most probable value.
B. Normal equation.
C. Method of correlates.
D. Probability law.

130.  Determine the value of correction if the wave length is given as 25m, having weight 6..
A. 2.87.
B. 7.14.
C. 1.47.
D. 4.17.

131.  Which of the following condition is to be used when the equal weights are introduced?.
A. e12 – e22 – e32 = 0.
B. e12 + e22 + e32 = 0.
C. e12 + e22 – e32 = 0.
D. e12 – e22 + e32 = 0.
Answer = e12 + e22 + e32 = 0

132.  In case of method of correlation, the error is distributed to every observation..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

133.  Find the value of E if the wavelengths of different lines are given as 63m and 54m, having weights 6 and 7 respectively..
A. 8.27.
B. 2.87.
C. 2.78.
D. 7.28.

134.  Which of the following describes the work done by the method of correlates?.
A. Reducing the mean work.
B. Neglecting the arithmetic work.
C. Increasing the arithmetic work.
D. Reducing the arithmetic work.
Answer = Reducing the arithmetic work

135.  Ample conditions were used in method of correlates..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

136.  If the value of wave length is given as 21m with different weights 6 and 2, find the value of E..
A. 14.0.
B. 13.0.
C. 12.0.
D. 10.0.

137.  Position of a celestial body can be determined by__________.
B. Azimuth.
C. Zenith.
D. Co-ordinates.

138.  The angle between observer meridian and declination circle is given as____________.
A. Hour angle.
B. Azimuth.
C. Bearing.
D. Zenith.

139.  The imaginary sphere on which stars appear to lie is known as__________.
A. Cylindrical sphere.
B. spheroid.
C. Celestial sphere.
D. Zenithal sphere.

140.  The point above which the satellite or any celestial body lies is known as_____________.
A. Zenith.
C. Visible horizon.
D. Latitude.

141.  Which of the following doesn't represent the co-ordinate system used in determining position of celestial body?.
A. Spherical co-ordinate system.
B. Horizon system.
C. Dependent system.
D. Independent system.

142.  The horizon system depends on which of the following?.
A. Visible horizon.
C. Zenith.
D. Observer's position.

143.  Zenith distance can be given as z = _____________.
A. z = 900 + Î±.
B. z = 900 * Î±.
C. z = 900 – Î±.
D. z = 900 / Î±.
Answer = z = 900 – Î±

144.  Equatorial circle is used as a reference in an independent equatorial system..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

145.  All the co-ordinates in dependent system will depend on observer's position..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

146.   In the dependent equatorial system, first co-ordinate represents on_________ and second co-ordinate represents on____________.
B. Zenith distance, hour angle.
C. Hour angle, declination.
D. Zenith, declination.

147.  Determine the spherical excess, if the area of the triangle is given as 32sq. m with radius 65m..
A. 1562.24 m.
B. 1526.24 m.
C. 1562.42 m.
D. 1652.24 m.

148.  If the radius of sphere is given as 43m and the spherical excess as 186.54m, find the area of a spherical triangle..
A. 6109.85 sq. m.
B. 6019.58 sq. m.
C. 6091.85 sq. m.
D. 6019.85 sq. m.

149.  Which among the following is used in the formation of the astronomical triangle?.
A. Zenith.
B. Meridian.
C. Horizon.
D. Azimuth.

150.  When the greatest distance is to the east of the meridian then the elongation is said to be____________.
A. Azimuthal elongation.
B. Meridian elongation.
C. Western elongation.
D. Eastern elongation.

151.  Which of the following cases determine that the astronomical triangle is right angled?.
A. Star at horizon.
B. Star at prime vertical.
C. Star at culmination.
D. Star at elongation.
Answer = Star at prime vertical

152.  Napier's rule is used for the calculation of___________.
A. Latitude.
B. Declination.
C. Hour angle.
D. Horizon.

153.  If the star is at horizon which of the following will be equal to zero?.
A. Prime vertical.
B. Altitude.
C. Declination of circle.
D. Meridian.

154.  A star crosses a meridian only once in its revolution..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

155.  Which of the following is obtained from astronomical triangle?.
A. Relation between cylindrical co-ordinates.
B. Relation between rectangular co-ordinates.
C. Relation between geometrical co-ordinates.
D. Relation between spherical co-ordinates.
Answer = Relation between spherical co-ordinates

156.  Which of the following cases is not related to astronomical triangle?.
A. Star at culmination.
B. Star at elongation.
C. Star at vertical.
D. Star at prime vertical.

157.  The stars which always move above the horizon are called as__________.
A. Circumpolar star.
B. Prime star.
C. Horizon star.
D. Culmination star.

158.   The culmination of the star depends upon which of the following factors?.
A. Zenith.
B. Altitude.
C. Meridian.
D.  Horizon.

159.  If the star is at elongation, find the altitude of the celestial body having declination and latitude as 24˚56êžŒ and 21˚43êžŒ..
A. 16˚16êžŒ.
B. 61˚61êžŒ.
C. 16˚16êžŒ.
D. 61˚16êžŒ.

160.  Which of the following can be used to sight two different objects simultaneously?.
A. Compass.
B. Sextant.
C. Theodolite.
D. Abney level.

161.  Sextant can be used to measure vertical angles..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

162.  Which of the following is not a classification of sextant?.
A. Box sextant.
B. Nautical sextant.
C. Vibrating sextant.
D. Sounding sextant.

163.  Which of the following can justify the principle of sextant?.
A. Î² = Î±/2.
B. Î± = Î²*2.
C. Î± = Î²+2.
D. Î± = Î²-2.

164.  Which of the following doesn't serve as an optical requirement in case of sextant?.
A. Optical axis must be parallel.
B. Mirrors if placed parallel should be zero.
C. Mirrors must be perpendicular.
D. Optical axis must be perpendicular.
Answer = Optical axis must be parallel

165.  Which classification of the sextant is used for navigation purposes?.
A. Box sextant.
B. Nautical sextant.
C. Vibrating sextant.
D. Sounding sextant.

166.  Which of the following instruments can be used for locating inaccessible points?.
A. Sounding sextant.
B. Vibrating sextant.
C. Box sextant.
D. Nautical sextant.

167.  Among the following, which doesn't come under permanent adjustment of sextant?.
A. Index glass perpendicular with graduated arc.
B. Horizon glass perpendicular with graduated arc.
C. Line of sight parallel to plane of graduated arc.
D. Line of sight perpendicular to plane of graduated arc.

168.  Which of the following need not to be changed in case of box sextant?.
A. Line of sight.
B. Index glass.
C. Index error.
D. Lens.

169.  If the index error is not large, error must be corrected..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

170.  Correction for parallax is given as___________.
A. Horizontal parallax * sin of apparent altitude.
B. Horizontal parallax * cot of apparent altitude.
C. Horizontal parallax * tan of apparent altitude.
D. Horizontal parallax * cos of apparent altitude.
Answer = Horizontal parallax * cos of apparent altitude

171.  Express the 24˚12êžŒ42êžŒêžŒ in hours, minutes and seconds..
A. 4h 36m 50.8s.
B. 16h 36m 50.8s.
C. 1h 36m 50.8s.
D. 1h 6m 20.8s.

172.  Determine the local time if the standard time is 19h 42m 7s and the difference in longitude can be given as 3h 9m towards west..
A. 16h 33m 7s.
B. 61h 33m 7s.
C. 16h 34m 5s.
D. 6h 33m 7s.

173.  Find G.M.T of a place if the L.M.T is given as 9h 24m 17s and the longitude 10h 23m 32s towards east..
A. 19h 47m 4s.
B. 19h 47m 49s.
C. 9h 47m 49s.
D. 19h 4m 49s.

174.  Which of the following indicate the standard time meridian of India?.
A. 82˚3êžŒ.
B. 28˚30êžŒ.
C. 8˚30êžŒ.
D. 82˚30êžŒ.

175.  The mean time associated with the standard meridian can be given as_________.
A. Meridian time.
B. Average time.
C. Standard time.
D. Absolute time.

176.  The formula of mean solar time can be given as ____________.
A. Hour angle + 12h.
B. Seconds angle + 12h.
C. Minutes angle + 12h.
D. Hour angle + 24h.
Answer = Hour angle + 12h

177.  Express the hours (19h 42m 16s) in angles..
A. 259˚34êžŒ.
B. 295˚43êžŒ.
C. 295˚34êžŒ.
D. 25˚34êžŒ.

178.  Which of the following indicates formula for green witch mean time?.
A. G.M.T = L.M.T * longitude of the place.
B. G.M.T = L.M.T ± longitude of the place.
C. G.M.T = L.M.T + longitude of the place.
D. G.M.T = L.M.T / longitude of the place.
Answer = G.M.T = L.M.T ± longitude of the place

179.  Calculate mean solar time if the hour angle of the sun is 34h 21m 15s..
A. 46h 21m 15s.
B. 64h 21m 15s.
C. 46h 12m 15s.
D. 46h 21m 51s.

180.  Which of the following doesn't belong to the set of corrections applied in astronomical corrections?.
A. Correction of parallax.
B. Correction of sag.
C. Correction of refraction.
D. Correction of semi-diameter.

181.  Magnitude of refraction depends upon which of the following factors?.
A. Density.
B. Surface tension.
C. Reflection.
D. Polarisation.

182.  Correction to the dip is always_____________.
A. Zero.
B. Multiplicative.
C. Subtractive.

183.  Which of the following is always subtractive?.
A. Correction for reflection.
B. Correction for dip.
C. Correction for parallax.
D. Correction for polarization.

184.  The relation between altitude and latitude of the observer can be given as__________.
A. Equal.
B. Minimum.
C. Maximum.
D. Not equal.

185.  The sign for the deflection angle depends upon _______________.
A. Altitude.
B. Zenith.
C. Celestial body.
D. Horizon.

186.  Determine the latitude of the observer if the altitude of the pole is given as 23˚41êžŒ..
A. 32˚14êžŒ.
B. 32˚41êžŒ.
C. 23˚14êžŒ.
D. 23˚41êžŒ.

187.  Find the latitude of the observer if the declination is about 54˚32êžŒ having a meridian zenith of about 10m..
A. 64˚2êžŒ.
B. 64˚32êžŒ.
C. 46˚32êžŒ.
D. 64˚23êžŒ.

188.  Find the difference of longitude between A = 30˚E and B = 160˚E..
A. 130˚.
B. 310˚.
C. 13˚.
D. 30˚.

189.  If longitudes of A and B are given as 32˚12êžŒ W, 44˚2êžŒ W having latitude 29˚24êžŒ. Find the distance in km between the points A and B..
A. 19.54km.
B. 91.1km.
C. 11.9km.
D. 19.1km.

190.  Which of the following indicates the formula for hour angle of equinox?.
A. Hour angle of star-  R.A of the star.
B. Hour angle of star+  R.A of the star.
C. Hour angle of star /  R.A of the star.
D. Hour angle of star*  R.A of the star.
Answer = Hour angle of star+  R.A of the star

191.  The distance between the points in a celestial body can be determined by using __________.
A. Napier's rule.
B. Celestial rule.
C. Zenithal rule.
D. Obligate rule.

192.  Determine the zenith distance if the declination of star is given as 74˚32êžŒ and the latitude of the observer as 54˚21êžŒ..
A. 0˚12êžŒ.
B. 2˚11êžŒ.
C. 20˚11êžŒ.
D. 20˚15êžŒ.

193.  If the zenith distance is given as 26˚57êžŒ, find the altitude of the star at upper culmination..
A. 63˚30êžŒ.
B. 36˚3êžŒ.
C. 3˚36êžŒ.
D. 63˚3êžŒ.

194.  Which of the following indicates the use of Zenith telescope?.
A. Zenith placement.
B. Zero error.
C. Low precision.
D. High precision.

195.  Zenith telescope also known as__________.
A. Zenith sector.
B. Sextant.
C. Zenith horizon.
D. Azimuthal telescope.

196.  Which of the following describes the usage of zenith telescope?.
A. Determination of equator.
B. Determination of earth poles.
C. Determination of tropic of Capricorn.
D. Determination of tropic of cancer.
Answer = Determination of earth poles

197.  Large zenith telescope is having a diameter of range ___________.
A. 0.5-2m.
B. 1-2m.
C. 2-2.5m.
D. 3-4m.

198.  Zenith telescope has been replaced by___________.
A. Celestial telescope.
B. Astronomical telescope.
D. Abnormal telescope.

199.  Zenith telescope can track the points other than its line of sight..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

200.  Large zenith telescope is used at___________.
A. Australia.
B. India.
C. South America.
D. North America.

201.  Which of the following indicates the objective of the zenith telescope?.
A. Spectral energy consumption.
B. Spectral energy dissolution.
C. Spectral energy distribution.
D. Spectral energy reflection.

202.  Zenith telescope is more expensive..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

203.  Who among the following theorized zenith telescope for the first time?.
A. Sir Isaac Newton.
B. Albert Einstein.
C. Ramanujan.

204.  Photo theodolite is a combination of________________.
A.  Theodolite, terrestrial camera.
B. Electronic theodolite, terrestrial camera.
C. Theodolite, aerial camera.
D. Electronic theodolite, aerial camera.

205.  Focal length of photo theodolite is around_____________.
A. 10-20 cm.
B. 10-15 cm.
C. 15-20 cm.
D. 15-30 cm.

206.  Vertical circle provided in the photo theodolite is graduated up to_____________.
A. 10 min.
B. 30 min.
C. 20 min.
D. 15 min.

207.  The plane perpendicular to the camera axis can be given as___________.
A. Vertical plane.
B. Horizontal plane.
C. Picture plane.
D. Azimuthal plane.

208.  Which of the following is having the same principle as that of photo-theodolite?.
A. Traverse surveying.
B. Theodolite surveying.
C. Compass surveying.
D. Plane-table surveying.

209.  Among the following, which doesn't belong to the parts of photo-theodolite?.
A. Vertical frame.
B. Theodolite.
C. Rectangular frame.
D. Tripod stand.

210.  Telescope fitted in the photo-theodolite can be rotated in a horizontal plane..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

211.  The axis of camera passes through____________.
A. Centre of the lens.
B. Centre of the axis.
C. Centre of the aperture.
D. Centre of the camera lens.
Answer = Centre of the camera lens

212.  The formula of focal length used in case of the lens fitted in telescope is given as _____.
A. 1/f = 1u – 1/v.
B. 1/f = 1u / 1/v.
C. 1/f = 1u + 1/v.
D. 1/f = 1u * 1/v.
Answer = 1/f = 1u + 1/v

213.  Which of the following describes the principle point?.
A. Intersection of the camera axis with picture plane.
B. Intersection of the camera axis with normal plane.
C. Intersection of the camera axis with image plane.
D. Intersection of the camera axis with plane.
Answer = Intersection of the camera axis with picture plane

214.  Both Terrestrial and aerial cameras are having the same functionality..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

215.  Which of the following doesn't include in the lens?.
A. Filter.
B. Shutter.
C. Diaphragm.
D. Azimuth.

216.  While using a large lens, which type of shutter is adopted?.
A. Between-the –lens shutter.
B. Louvre shutter.
C. Focal plane shutter.
D. Ideal shutter.

217.  Which among the following specifies the use of diaphragm?.
B. Managing azimuth.
D. Managing size of aperture.
Answer = Managing size of aperture

218.  Which of the following is not an essential part of the aerial camera?.
A. Shutter.
B. Lens.
C. Horizon.
D. Magazine.

219.  Which among the following is placed in between lens elements?.
A. Diaphragm.
B. Lens.
C. Line of sight.
D. Magazine.

220.  Filter consists of ________.
A. piece of aperture.
B. piece of hole.
C. piece of glass.
D. piece of lens.

221.  Focal plane is provided at_____________.
A. Point of resection.
B. Point of intersection.
C. Point of contraction.
D. Point of collimation.

222.  Which of the following doesn't come under drive mechanism?.
A. Tripping the shutter.
B. Operating vacuum system.
C. Winding the film.
D. Binding the film.

223.  Which of the following can hold the films of the focal plane?.
A. Magazine.
B. Convergence.
C. Divergence.
D. Intersection.

224.  Which of the following photographs may have a varying scale?.
A. Datum photograph.
B. Horizontal photograph.
C. Vertical photograph.
D. Tilted photograph.

225.  Among the following, which must be known for determining scale in a tilted photograph?.
A. Focal length.
B. Datum height.
C. Azimuth.
D. Zenith.

226.  The geometric process involved in the determination of scale for titled photograph is____________.
A. Spherical.
B. Cylindrical.
C. Analytical.
D. Co-ordinate.

227.  Which of the following indicates the formula of scale for a tilted photograph?.
A. sh = (f*sec t / mn*sin t) / (H-h).
B. sh = (f*sec t * mn*sin t) / (H-h).
C. sh = (f*sec t + mn*sin t) / (H-h).
D. sh = (f*sec t – mn*sin t) / (H-h).
Answer = sh = (f*sec t – mn*sin t) / (H-h)

228.  Which of the following is not recommended in case of determining the scale of a tilted photograph?.
A. Axis.
B. Focal length.
C. Height of the point.
D. Tilt.

229.  Determine the length of the line AB having co-ordinates (2, 4), (6, 7)..
A. 3.16m.
B. 31.6m.
C. 13.6m.
D. 13.9m.

230.  Flying height can be determined by using tilted photograph..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

231.  For identification of length of a line, co-ordinates must be known..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

232.  Variation in scale of photograph can take place due variation in_____________.
A. Datum.
B. Azimuth.
C. Zenith.
D. Elevation.

233.  Which of the following indicates the formula for scale?.
A. Ground distance / map distance.
B. Map distance / ground distance.
C. Map distance / elevation point.
D. Elevation point / map distance.
Answer = Map distance / ground distance

234.  Scale at elevation point in photograph can be given as_____________.
A. S = f/ (H – h).
B. S = f/ (H + h).
C. S = f/ (H * h).
D. S = f/ (- H + h).
Answer = S = f/ (H – h)

235.  Which of the following can also be used in order to determine the scale of a photograph?.
A. Recurring fraction.
B. Reciprocating fraction.
C. Representation fraction.
D. Reducing fraction.

236.  If all the ground points are projected vertically downward on the mean sea level, which scale is recommended to be used?.
A. Datum scale.
B. Average scale.
C. Azimuth scale.
D. Reference scale.

237.  The formula for average scale can be given as______________.
A. S = f / (H+hav).
B. S = f / (H*hav).
C. S = f / (-H+hav).
D. S = f / (H-hav).
Answer = S = f / (H-hav)

238.  Which of the following indicates the right step for determination of scale?.
A. Measuring ground distance.
B. Comparing angles.
C. Joining elevation points.
D. Comparing zenith levels.

239.  The value of horizontal distance can be determined by which of the following methods?.
A. Traversing.
B. Triangulation.
C. Theodolite surveying.
D. Compass surveying.

240.  Determine the scale at elevation point if the values of focal length, height of station and the height of mean sea level are given by 23cm, 76cm and 20cm..
A. 0.41cm.
B. 0.4cm.
C. 4.41cm.
D. 1.41cm.

241.  What will be the average elevation of terrain if the scale is given as 43m, focal length and height of the station as 4m and 20m?.
A. 19.19 m.
B. 91.91 m.
C. 9.91 m.
D. 9.9 m.

242.  Photographic scale can be determined by using the photo distance..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

243.  For finding the scale of a photograph, the points must be equally elevated..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

244.  Stereoscopic measurement involves in__________.
A. Fusing photographs.
B. Stripping photographs.
C. Tilting photographs.
D. Placing vertical.

245.  The errors caused due to terrestrial photogrammetry can be reduced by_______.
A. Stereo photogrammetry.
B. Terrestrial stereo photogrammetry.
C. Remote sensing.
D. GIS.

246.  Which process is capable of covering maximum area with minimum effort?.
A. Terrestrial photogrammetry.
B. Remote sensing.
C. GIS.
D. Traversing.

247.  Which among the following methods is easy in computing photographs?.
A. Remote sensing.
B. Plane table photogrammetry.
C. Terrestrial photogrammetry.
D. GIS.

248.  Which among the following is the best mapping procedure?.
A. Elite photogrammetry.
B. plane table photogrammetry.
C. Terrestrial photogrammetry.
D. Aerial photogrammetry.

249.  Which of the following is used in Terrestrial photogrammetry?.
A. Horizon.
B. Maps.
C. Zenith.
D. Azimuth.

250.  In terrestrial method, both plotting recording are done simultaneously..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

251.  Which of the following processes cover entire area in a short span?.
A. Aerial photogrammetry.
B. Terrestrial photogrammetry.
C. Theodolite surveying.
D. Traverse surveying.

252.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of terrestrial photogrammetric classification?.
A. Plane-table, stereo.
B. Theodolite, terrestrial.
C. Plane-table, terrestrial stereo.
D. Theodolite, terrestrial stereo.

253.  Which among the following is capable of giving accuracy in its output?.
A. Traverse surveying.
B. Theodolite surveying.
C. Aerial photogrammetry.
D. Terrestrial photogrammetry.

254.  The distance between nodal point and the plane of the photograph depends on the __________.
A. Focal length of the mirror.
B. Aperture.
C. Line of sight.
D. Focal length of the lens.
Answer = Focal length of the lens

255.  Minimum 4 mirrors are used in case of a mirror stereoscope..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

256.  Which of the following doesn't indicate the purpose of stereoscope?.
A. Relation between convergence and accommodation.
B. Line of sight justification.
C. Perception of depth.
D. Assisting eyes on the image.
Answer = Line of sight justification

257.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of Stereoscope classification?.
A. Mirror stereoscope and prism stereoscope.
B. Mirror stereoscope and plane table stereoscope.
C. Mirror stereoscope and lens stereoscope.
D. Lens stereoscope and plane table stereoscope.
Answer = Mirror stereoscope and lens stereoscope

258.  Which of the following processes help in placing the image on fovea?.
A. Convergence.
B. Magazine.
C. Focal length.
D. Aperture.

259.  Which of the following is involved in obtaining spatial relation?.
A. Focal length.
B. Binocular vision.
C. Polarization.
D. Telescopic vision.

260.  Which of the following won't serve as a reason for the impression of depth?.
A. Relative size of objects.
B. Light effects.
C. Calculation of azimuth.
D. Simultaneous view.

261.  The stereoscopic vision can be applied to ____________.
A. Photogrammetry.
B. Theodolite surveying.
C. Traversing.
D. Compass surveying.

262.  Lens used in the stereoscope can be flattened by which among the following methods?.
B. Divergence.
C. Convergence.
D. Accommodation.

263.  The difference between the images on retina is given as__________.
A. Retinal disparity.
B. Stereoscopic disparity.
C. Difference in retinal.
D. Stereoscopic retina.

264.  Which of the following doesn't come under the ideal conditions of stereoscopic views?.
A. Elevation of camera position.
B. Measuring iso centric distance.
C. Making camera axis vertical.
D. Overlapping of photograph.
Answer = Measuring iso centric distance

265.  Overlapping in the direction of flight can be described as_____________.
A. Forward overlap.
B. Side lap.
C. Backward overlap.

266.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of overlapping percentage?.
A. 50-60%.
B. 55-70%.
C. 50-70%.
D. 55-60%.

267.  Overlapping occurred due to adjacent flight lines can be termed as__________.
A. Front lap.
B. Forward lap.
C. Side lap.
D. Straight lap.

268.  Determine the distance of flight strips if the height lens placed is given as 56m..
A. 68.32m.
B. 86.32m.
C. 68.56m.
D. 86.39m.

269.  What will be the distance between the flight strips if the value at point B is given as 6m?.
A. 28m.
B. 12m.
C. 21m.
D. 124m.

270.  The formula for determining the distance between flight strips can be given as_________.
A. W = 1.22+H.
B. W = 1.22-H.
C. W = 1.22/H.
D. W = 1.22*H.

271.  Overlapping increases the amount of work to be done..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

272.  The relation between normal direction of flight and the rectangular area can be given as_________.
A. 2W = 2*B.
B. W = 2*B.
C. 3W = 2*B.
D. 4W = 2*B.

273.  Calculate the flying height if the contour interval is given as 6m..
A. 300km.
B. 300m.
C. 3000m.
D. 3000cm.

274.  Unless the area is mapped, W value must be reduced..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

275.  The value of c-factor lies in between ____________.
A. 500-1500.
B. 50-1500.
C. 50-150.
D. 150-550.

276.  Which of the following is not considered while calculating distance between flight strips?.
A. Vertical photographs.
B. Mitigating crab.
C. Eradicating drift of the aircraft.
D. Line of sight.

277.  The lens used in aerial photogrammetry is having a maximum coverage capacity of_________(in angles).
A. 930.0.
B. 630.0.
C. 530.0.
D. 980.0.

278.  Which of the following is not a type of shutter used in aerial photogrammetry?.
A. Between-the-lens shutter.
B. Louvre shutter.
C. Ideal shutter.
D. Focal plane shutter.

279.  For placing focal plane, which is used as a reference?.
A. Focal length.
B. Horizon.
C. Azimuth.
D. Collimation marks.

280.  Focal plane varies while aerial photogrammetry is carried out..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

281.  Which among the following surveying methods is meant to be having high precision?.
A. Aerial photogrammetry.
B. Terrestrial photogrammetry.
C. Theodolite surveying.
D. Traverse surveying.

282.  Vertical photograph coincides with the__________.
A. Direction of line of sight.
B. Direction of lens.
C. Direction of aperture.
D. Direction of gravity.

283.  How much inclination must be provided in a tilted photograph?.
A. 13˚.
B. 20˚.
C. 3˚.
D. 34˚.

284.  If the apparent horizon is shown in a photograph, it is low oblique..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

285.  Perspective projection is produced from__________.
A. Straight lines radiating a common point.
B. Straight lines radiating different points.
C. Parallel lines radiating a common point.
D. Perpendicular lines radiating a common point.

286.  Flying height refers to_________.
A. Upper portion of the exposure station.
B. Bottom of the exposure station.
C. Depression of the exposure station.
D. Elevation of the exposure station.
Answer = Elevation of the exposure station

287.  Difference in parallax can be obtained due to___________.
A. Distance between zenith.
B. Distance between bearing.
C. Distance between azimuth.
D. Distance between points sights.
Answer = Distance between points sights

288.  Which of the following can be used to view stereo pair?.
A. Aerial camera.
B. Stereoscope.
C. Stereoscopic camera.
D. Telescope.

289.  Which of the following doesn't come under the category of depth perception?.
A. Accommodation.
C. Divergence.
D. Retinal display.

290.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of stereoscope classifications?.
A. Lens and azimuth stereoscope.
B. Mirror and azimuth stereoscope.
C. Mirror and lens stereoscope.
D. Mirror stereoscope and stereo pair.
Answer = Mirror and lens stereoscope

291.  Which of the following indicate parallax equation for ground co-ordinate point?.
A. X = B*x + p.
B. X = B*x – p.
C. X = B*x * p.
D. X = B*x / p.
Answer = X = B*x / p

292.  The distance between nodal point and plane of photograph depends on datum height..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

293.  Displacement due to successive exposures can be given as_____________.
A. Visual parallax.
B. Multiple exposure.
C. Exposure.
D. Parallax.

294.  The value of overlapping parallax can be determined by ___________.
A. P = x / xêžŒ.
B. P = x – xêžŒ.
C. P = x * xêžŒ.
D. P = x + xêžŒ.
Answer = P = x – xêžŒ

295.  Determine the value of parallax, if the x-coordinate on left hand photograph is 54 and on right hand photograph is 32..
A. 24.0.
B. 12.0.
C. 22.0.
D. 27.0.

296.  Which of the following doesn't serve as a condition for an aerial stereoscopic view?.
A. Excessive overlapping.
B. Elevation of camera for exposure.
C. Vertical camera axis.
D. Sufficient overlapping.

297.  Which of the following doesn't indicate a stage in remote sensing?.
A. Reflectance of energy.
B. Transmission of energy.
C. Energy source.
D. Absorption of energy.

298.  The electromagnetic wave travelling from source to the object is having same wave length..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

299.  Which of the following indicates the functioning of a sensor?.
A. Transmits energy.
B. Absorbs wave length.
C. Sensitive to wave length.
D. Reflects energy.
Answer = Sensitive to wave length

300.  Among the following, which indicates the correct set of classification of data?.
A. Analog, digital.
B. Digital, binary.
C. Binary, analog.
D. Vector, raster.

301.  Which type of remote sensing uses its own source of electromagnetic energy?.
A. Passive.
B. Active.
C. Satellite.
D. Orbital.

302.  The correct sequence of transmission of electromagnetic waves in remote sensing system can be given as ___________.
A. Energy source, transmission of signal, propagation of signal.
B. Transmission of signal, propagation of signal, energy source.
C. Propagation of signal, transmission of signal, energy source.
D. Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal.
Answer = Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal

303.  Signal can be generated by____________.
A. Interaction of EM waves with surface.
B. Interaction of EM waves with energy source.
C. Interaction of EM waves with atmosphere.
D. Interaction of EM waves with sensor.
Answer = Interaction of EM waves with surface

304.  Which among the following is the first Indian remote sensing satellite?.
A. Quick Bird.
B. SPOT.
C. IRS-1A.
D. MOS.

305.  Among the following, the correct set of remote sensing classification can be given as__________.
A. Active, orbital.
B. Active, passive.
C. Passive, orbital.
D. Orbital, satellite.

306.  The data obtained by the process of remote sensing needs great knowledge to understand it..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

307.  Which among the following is not a phenomenon in case of interaction of EM waves on earth surface?.
A. Reflection.
B. Absorption.
C. Transmission.
D. Refraction.

308.  Which of the following can be changed while interaction of EM wave with a surface?.
A. Intensity.
B. Diffraction.
C. Wave length.
D. Direction.

309.  Which of the following indicates a volume phenomenon?.
A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Transmission.
D. Diffraction.

310.  Determine the energy of the wave length, if the reflected, absorbed and transmitted energies were given as 56J, 24J and 7J respectively..
A. 87J.
B. 78J.
C. 89J.
D. 17J.

311.  Find the value of reflectance if the reflected and incident energies are given as 43J and 87J..
A. 0.94.
B. 0.42.
C. 0.99.
D. 0.49.

312.  What will be the value of absorbance, if the absorbed and incident energies are given as 67J and 109J respectively?.
A. 0.16.
B. 0.61.
C. 0.69.
D. 0.72.

313.  Find the transmittance, if the transmitted and incident energies are given as 156J and 987J respectively..
A. 0.51.
B. 0.45.
C. 0.15.
D. 0.5.

314.  What will be reflectance value if the possess an emissivity of 56..
A. 55.0.
B. 50.0.
C. 54.0.
D. 52.0.

315.  When emissivity is zero, what will be the value of reflectance?.
A. One.
B. Zero.
C. Ten.
D. Not equal to one.
Answer = Not equal to one

316.  The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency can be given as_________.
A. Î» = c / r.
B. Î» = c / f.
C. Î» = c / h.
D. Î» = h*c / f.
Answer = Î» = c / f

317.  Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its procedure?.
A. Electric field.
B. Sonar waves.
C. Gamma- rays.
D. Electro-magnetic waves.

318.  Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?.
A. Interaction of energy with satellite.
B. Electromagnetic energy.
C. Electro-magnetic spectrum.
D. Interaction of energy with atmosphere.
Answer = Interaction of energy with satellite

319.  Which among the following waves is having less wavelength range?.
A. 0.03mm.
B. 0.03nm.
C. 0.03m.
D. 0.03km.

320.  In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of __________.
A. 0.42-0.52 micrometer.
B. 0.24-0.52 micrometer.
C. 0.42-0.92 micrometer.
D. 0.22-0.32 micrometer.

321.  Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?.
A. Solar field.
B. Polarized field.
C. Electric field.
D. Micro field.

322.  Among the following, which describes Stefan- Boltzmann formula?.
A. M = Ïƒ/T4.
B. M = Ïƒ-T4.
C. M = Ïƒ+T4.
D. M = Ïƒ*T4.

323.  Which of the following is not a classification of scattering principle?.
B. Rayleigh scattering.
C. Mie scattering.
D. Non-selective scattering.

324.  Which of the following can act as an example for air-borne platform?.
A. LISS-III.
B. Dakota.
C. MOS.
D. LISS-II.

325.  Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of __________.
A. 7-15km.
B. 7000-15000km.
C. 700-1500km.
D. 70-150km.

326.  Diameter of sun can be given as____________.
A. 1.39 * 107 km.
B. 1.9 * 106 km.
C. 1.39 * 106 km.
D. 1.39 * 1016 km.
Answer = 1.39 * 106 km

327.  The energy radiated from sun in visible region will be around____________.
A. 0.43.
B. 0.45.
C. 0.47.
D. 0.5.

328.  The value of solar constant can be given as__________.
A. 1637 W / m2.
B. 1367 W / m2.
C. 136 W / m2.
D. 3167 W / m2.
Answer = 1367 W / m2

329.  Temperature on the sun is around______________.
A. 575 – 600 K.
B. 7550 – 8000 K.
C. 5570 – 6000 K.
D. 5750 – 6000 K.
Answer = 5750 – 6000 K

330.  Around how much percentage, the incident radiant flux can be absorbed by the materials present on earth?.
A. 0.48.
B. 0.37.
C. 0.42.
D. 0.5.

331.  Determine the spectral existence of a black body if the absolute temperature can be given as 300K..
A. 1968*10-11 W/sq. m.
B. 1689*10-11 W/sq. m.
C. 6298*10-11 W/sq. m.
D. 1698*10-11 W/sq. m.

332.  Find the value of Î», if the temperature of the body is given as 560K..
A. 4.16*10-14 m.
B. 6.16*10-14 m.
C. 5.16*10-14 m.
D. 5.16*10-4 m.

333.  Determine the spectral existence of a body by using plank's law, if the wave length is given as 456m and the absolute temperature is 765K..
A. 3.6*1030 W / sq. m.
B. 4.6*1030 W / sq. m.
C. 6.6*1030 W / sq. m.
D. 3.6*1030 W / sq. m.
Answer = 3.6*1030 W / sq. m

334.  Determine the absolute temperature of the body from Stefan – Boltzmann law if spectral existence of the body is 3.55 * 10-10 W /sq. m.
A. 19.58 K.
B. 1.58 K.
C. 15.58 K.
D. 1.85 K.

335.  From Wien's displacement law, determine the absolute temperature if wave length is given as 0.05m..
A. 7.8*10-3 K.
B. 75.8*10-3 K.
C. 57.25*10-35 K.
D. 57.8*10-3 K.

336.  Which of the following has the maximum value in an electric or magnetic field?.
A. Wave length.
B. Focal length.
C. Frequency.
D. Amplitude.

337.  Velocity of light can be given as___________.
A. 1*108m/s.
B. 3.9*108m/s.
C. 3*108m/s.
D. 3*1018m/s.

338.  In EM waves, electric field is not used..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

339.  Determine the wave length if the frequency is given as 67Hz..
A. 1.044*108m.
B. 0.044*108m.
C. 0.44*108m.
D. 0.044*1010m.

340.  Find the value of energy if the wave length is given as 43m..
A. 0.46*10-26 J.
B. 0.46*10-26 J.
C. 0.46*10-26 J.
D. 0.46*10-26 J.

341.  If the intensity of wave length decreases, the energy released will  ___________.
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain same.
D. Zero.

342.  What will be the wave length if the energy produced is 36J?.
A. 0.5*10-26m.
B. 0.55*10-26m.
C. 0.55*10-16m.
D. 0.55*10-6m.

343.  In an EM field, which filed is placed horizontal?.
A. Gamma rays.
B. Sonar field.
C. Electric field.
D. Magnetic field.

344.  The wave length sensed in remote sensing are __________.
A. Nano meters and giga meters range.
B. Nano meters and deci meters range.
C. Nano meters and micro meters range.
D. Nano meters and meters range.
Answer = Nano meters and micro meters range

345.  Energy of the discrete particles can be given by_______.
A. Photons.
B. Protoplasm.
C. Electrons.
D. Neutrons.

346.  Which among the following is having more wavelengths?.
A. X-rays.
B. Cosmic waves.
D. Gamma rays.

347.  Which among the following wave is not employed in case of remote sensing?.
A. X-ray.
B. Visible ray.
C. Thermal IR.

348.  Optical mechanical scanner is used in which type of electromagnetic waves?.
A. X-rays.
B. Cosmic waves.
D. Thermal IR.

349.  Radio waves are having the longest wavelength among all the electromagnetic waves..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

350.  Gamma rays are having a wavelength of_________.
A. Zero.
B. Greater than 0.03nm.
C. Less than 0.03nm.
D. Equal to 0.03nm.

351.  Which of the following waves can be used in case of remote sensing?.
A. UV rays.
B. X-rays.
C. Gamma rays.
D. Visible rays.

352.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio waves?.
A. Shorter wavelength – high frequency.
B. Longer wavelength – less frequency.
C. Shorter wavelength – less frequency.
D. Longer wavelength – high frequency.
Answer = Shorter wavelength – high frequency

353.  How much wave length is reflected back by the earth surface from the absorbed sun radiation?.
A. 0.5meter.
B. 0.5 micrometer.
C. 0.5 centimeter.
D. 0.5 decimeter.

354.  EM waves varies from ______ to ________.
A. Meters to nano-meters.
B. Meters to micro-meters.
C. Nano to micro-meters.
D. Centimeters to nano-meters.

355.  The formula of energy produced from the body can be given as_________.
A. Q = h- c / Î».
B. Q = h*c * Î».
C. Q = h+ c / Î».
D. Q = h*c / Î».
Answer = Q = h*c / Î»

356.  Strength of signal doesn't depend upon which of the following factors?.
A. Energy flux.
B. Dwell time.
C. Altitude.
D. Reflection.

357.   Which of the following indicates the correct set of bands operated in LISS- III satellite?.
A. Visible ray, near IR.
D. Far IR, near IR.
Answer = Visible ray, near IR

358.  Energy flux may affect which of the following?.
A. Lens.
B. Strength of the signal.
C. Aperture.
D. Declination.
Answer = Strength of the signal

359.  Which of the following can merge the imagery of LISS-III and PAN?.
A. IRS 1B.
B. IRS 1A.
C. IRS 1C.
D. IRS multi sensor.

360.  Which among the following indicates the correct expansion of WiFS?.
A. Wide Field Sensor.
B. Wireless Fidelity Sensor.
C. Wide Fidelity Sensor.
D. Wireless Field Sensor.

361.  IRS P3 satellite uses which of the following sensors?.
A. PAN.
B. LISS-III.
C. MOS.
D. LISS-II.

362.  PAN sensor uses two band operators..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

363.  While mapping land use and land cover, which scale is recommended?.
A. 1: 25000.
B. 1: 50000.
C. 1: 250000.
D. 31-Dec-1899.

364.  The sensor used in the digital elevation model can identify contour heights greater than_____.
A. 5 m.
B. 30 m.
C. 20 m.
D. 10 m.

365.  IRS 1A and 1B satellites can carry which of the following sensors?.
A. LISS-IV.
B. LISS-III.
C. LISS-I.
D. LISS-V.

366.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of M's used in case of GIS?.
A. Manipulating, monitoring, mapping, modeling.
B. Measuring, manipulating, mapping, modeling.
C. Measuring, monitoring, marketing, modeling.
D. Measuring, monitoring, mapping, modeling.
Answer = Measuring, monitoring, mapping, modeling

367.  Which of the following works involves modeling?.
A. Tectonic plate movement.
B. Drainage network.
D. Railway line.

368.  Mapping involves which of the following?.
A. Soil details.
B. Boundary details.
D. Population details.

369.  In which aspect of agriculture GIS is used?.
A. Soil analysis.
B. Seed requirement.
C. Fertilizer.
D. Pesticides.

370.  Which of the following software can be used in case of property tax assessment?.
B. Revit.
C. Remote sensing.
D. GIS.

371.  Which of the following software's are used for developing vehicle route?.
A. Autodesk Revit.
C. GIS.
D. Remote sensing.

372.  Population forecast can be done by using GIS..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

373.  Which of the following is not a property of coordinate in GIS?.
A. Line of sight.
B. Origin.
C. Axis.
D. Units of measurement.

374.  Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?.
A. Spherical, projected systems.
B. Geographic, projected systems.
C. Geographic, spherical systems.
D. Geographic, geometric systems.

375.  Longitudes are used to represent which of the following directions?.
A. North–East.
B. South.
C. North.
D. East.

376.  GIS uses the information from which of the following sources?.
A. Non- spatial information system.
B. Spatial information system.
C. Global information system.
D. Position information system.

377.  Among the following ____________ can be expressed as an example of hardware component..
A. Keyboard.
B. Arc GIS.
D. Digitalization.

378.  Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?.
A. DXF.
B. PDF.
C. GIF.
D. HTML.

379.  In the process of GIS, digitalization is done for better output..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

380.  Which among the following is not related to GIS software's?.
B. Arc GIS.
C. Arc View.

381.  Among the following, which do not come under the components of GIS?.
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. Compiler.
D. Data.

382.  Data can be shared in the process of GIS..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

383.  Which of the following doesn't determine the capability of GIS?.
A. Defining a map.
B. Representing cartographic feature.
C. Retrieving data.
D. Transferring data.

384.  Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?.
A. Maintaining geo spatial data.
B. Data sharing.
C. Accurate data information.
D. Presence of data retrieval service.
Answer = Maintaining geo spatial data

385.  Which among the following is a server based hardware platform of GIS?.
A. Autodesk Revit.
C. Arc GIS.

386.  Which of the following can be used for representing a real world feature on two dimensional surfaces?.
A. Plan.
B. Drawing.
C. Scale.
D. Map.

387.  Which of the following sets represent the correct set of map classification?.
B. Thematic, geographic.
D. Geographic, topographic.

388.  Which type of map can explain a particular feature in detail?.
B. Topographic map.
C. Thematic map.
D. Geographic map.

389.  If the number on scale is less then it represents a large scale map..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

390.  In which of the following ways, meridians are projected in cylindrical projection?.
A. Mathematically.
B. Geometrically.
C. Horizontally.
D. Vertically.

391.  Which type of map projection is used in the preparation of atlas?.
A. Cylindrical projection.
B. UTM projection.
C. Poly conic projection system.
D. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection.
Answer = Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection

392.  The entire earth surface is divided into zones in which type of map projection?.
A. Poly conic projection system.
B. Cylindrical projection.
C. UTM projection.
D. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection.

393.  Which of the following can also be termed as un projected co-ordinate system?.
A. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection.
B. Latitude – longitude geographic co-ordinate system.
C. Poly conic projection system.
D. Cylindrical projection.
Answer = Latitude – longitude geographic co-ordinate system

394.  Determine the scale of the map if the distance on the map is given as 2cm which is equal to 1km on the ground..
A. 1: 50000.
B. 3.513888888888889.
C. 1: 100000.
D. 0.3888888888888889.

395.   Which of the following is not a method of representation of the scale of the map?.
A. Ratio method.
B. Verbal method.
C. Geographical method.
D. Non-verbal method.

396.  Which of the following doesn't indicate a topology error?.
A. Polygonal features.
B. Gaps between polygons.
C. Silver polygons.
D. Unclosed polygons.

397.  Which of the following acts as a source of inaccuracy?.
A. Format of data.
B. Silver polygon.
C. Unclosed polygon.
D. Dongle nodes.

398.  Among the errors occurring in GIS, which can cause a drastic change or fail the entire process?.
A. Format of data.
B. Unclosed polygons.
C. Dongle nodes.
D. Silver polygons.

399.  Which of the following is not a category of error?.
A. Change in format.
B. Areal cover.
C. Map scale.
D. Density of observation.

400.  Age of data can act as a source of error..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

401.  Which of the following can be represented as an example of format error?.
A. Silver polygons.
B. Dongle nodes.
C. Changing from raster to vector.
D. Areal cover.
Answer = Changing from raster to vector

402.  Silver polygons occur due to excessive overlaying..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

403.  Dongle nodes can be removed by___________.
A. Undo.
B. Eraser.
C. Behind shoot.
D. Over shoot.

404.  Study of geometric objects will come under the category of______________.
A. Surveying.
B. Cartography.
C. Surface geometry.
D. Topology.

405.  Which type of data set is not used in GIS related software's?.
A. Vertex.
B. Point.
C. Poly line.
D. polygon.

406.  Among the available formats, which is most commonly used in case of GIS?.
A. GIF.
B. TIFF.
C. JPEG.
D. DXF.

407.  The point data feature can be used to represent __________.
A. Location.
B. Area.
C. 3D area.
D. Volume.

408.  The polygonal data feature uses which of the following data format?.
A. Scientific character.
B. Math.
C. Character.
D. Integer.

409.  Which of the following justifies the usage of topology?.
A. Terrain of the area.
B. Geometry of the model.
C. Climatic conditions.
D. Atmospheric conditions.
Answer = Geometry of the model

410.  Spatial relationship can be established by using GIS..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

411.  Which feature of GIS can share the boundary of the polygon?.
A. Polygons.
B. Poly lines.
C. Dongle nodes.
D. Silver polygons.

412.  Which of the following indicate topological primitive?.
A. Poly line.
B. Point.
C. Node.
D. Polygon.

413.  Which of the following acts as a key to GIS?.
A. Topology.
B. Platform.
C. Software.
D. Terrain.

414.  Which of the following indicates the correct set for the division of map numbering?.
A. CIM, IAC series.
B. CIM, IAF.
C. IAC, CIA.
D. IAF, IAC.

415.  The CIM series can be used in __________scale..
A. 1:2,50,000.
B. 1:50,000.
C. 1:25,000.
D. 0.11527777777777777.

416.  Which of the following processes is involved in CIM series?.
A. Decoupled integration.
B. Integration.
C. Decoupled differentiation.
D. Differentiation.

417.  Which of the following is the right expansion of CIM?.
A. Commerce Information Model.
B. Common Information Model.
C. Common Informational Modem.
D. Common Information Modem.

418.  Which of the following is used in CIM?.
B. Remote sensing.
C. GIS.
D. Revit.

419.  What is the common language interpreted in the CIM system?.
A. Spanish.
B. French.
C. Italian.
D. English.

420.  CIM was adopted by which of the following commissions?.
A. ICE.
B. IEI.
C. ICI.
D. IEC.

421.  Which of the following is not one of the software's of GIS?.
A. Arc GIS.
B. RS GIS.
C. Q GIS.
D. Super GIS.

422.  ESB integration model is developed based on __________.
A. CIM series.
B. GIS.
C. Remote sensing.
D. Arc GIS.

423.  Swiss Alps farming can be monitored by using ________.
A. Revit.
B. Remote sensing.
C. GIS.

424.  Which of the following is used for shaping the velocity of the satellite orbit?.
A. User segment.
B. Control segment.
C. Ground segment.
D. Space segment.

425.  Which type of band can be used in the control segment?.
A. N-band.
B. M-band.
C. K-band.
D. S-band.

426.  Which among the following describes the usage of the S – band?.
A. Merging wave length.
B. Measuring wavelength.
C. Duplex information transmission.
D. Identifying signals.

427.  For coupling globally distributed ground assets which among the following can be used?.
A. S-band.
B. L-band.
C. K-band.
D. M-band.

428.  Which of the following indicates the operations performed by the control segment?.
A. Identifying bands.
B. Merging signals.
C. Controlling space vehicle.
D. Determining wavelengths.

429.  Which of the following is not included in the Operation Control segment?.
A. Master control station.
B. Alternate master control station.
C. Commands.
D. Program.

430.  Which of the following can be used to generate navigational messages?.
A. Control station.
B. User segment.
C. Space segment.
D. Delivery segment.

431.  Ground antennas can be communicated using __________.
A. N-band.
B. K-band.
C. S-band.
D. M-band.

432.  Satellite segment receives which of the following information?.
A. Signals.
C. Location.
D. Gamma rays.

433.  Which of the following satellites can use OCS?.
A. LISS-III.
B. IRS-1B.
C. IRS-1A.
D. IIF.

434.  Which of the following is necessary for further processing in code based positioning?.
A. Frequency.
B. Carrier wave.
D. Satellite.

435.  Two satellites are enough for finding accurate position of the object..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

436.  Carrier phase uses the principle of ____________.
A. Compass.
B. Theodolite.
C. EDM.
D. Traversing.

437.  Which of the following can be identified as the correct set for position fixing method?.
A. Carrier phase, relative positioning.
B. Code phase, absolute positioning.
C. Absolute positioning, relative positioning.
D. Code phase, carrier phase.
Answer = Code phase, carrier phase

438.  Cycle slip occurs due to change in____________.
A. Wave length.
B. Phase.
C. Frequency.
D. Velocity.

439.  Kinematic positioning will come under which of the following classification?.
A. Relative positioning.
B. Absolute positioning.
C. Resection method.
D. Carrier wave method.

440.  Base receiver is kept stationary in which of the following operations?.
A. Stop-and-go positioning.
B. Kinematic positioning.
C. Fast static positioning.
D. Static positioning.

441.  If the connection of the number of satellites decreases, the accuracy of the positioning increases..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

442.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of GPS data classification?.
A. Almanac and ephemeris.
B. Ephemeris and user segment.
C. Ephemeris and space segment.
D. Almanac and user segment.

443.  The GPS time must be very accurate..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

444.  Which of the following can be affected by atmospheric path disturbances?.
A. Modern GPS surveying.
B. Conventional GPS.
C. Absolute positioning.
D. Resection method.

445.  Which among the following can be described as an application of pseudo ranging?.
A. Computation of distance between satellite and user.
B. Computation of distance between GPS antenna and satellite.
C. Computation of distance between GPS antenna and user.
D. Computation of distance between satellite and object.
Answer = Computation of distance between GPS antenna and satellite

446.  By using pseudo ranging method, two dimensional and three dimensional GPS positions can be located..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

447.  Which of the following error occurs due to atmospheric conditions?.
A. Natural error.
B. User error.
C. Propagation error.
D. Signal multipath error.

448.  Which of the following is not used in the tracking system?.
A. Multiple frequency.
B. Dual frequency.
C. Single frequency.

449.  Which of the following doesn't belong to the relative positioning techniques?.
A. Real-time kinematic technique.
B. Viscous GPS technique.
C. Kinematic GPS surveying technique.
D. Differential GPS technique.

450.  Which of the following classes of positioning technique possess high precision?.
A. GPS.
B. Viscous technique.
C. Real time technique.
D. Kinematic technique.

451.  Which among the following indicates the correct set of static GPS surveying technology classification?.
A. Long and normal base lines.
B. Medium and short baselines.
C. Long and short baselines.
D. Normal and short base lines.
Answer = Long and short baselines

452.  What will be the length of the base line in case of short baseline method of GPS surveying?.
A. Less than 50km.
B. Greater than 50km.
C. Less than 2km.
D. Greater than 100km.

453.  Which of the following is considered as modern GPS technology?.
A. GIS.
B. GPS mode.
C. Instantaneous mode.
D. Kinematic positioning technique.

454.  In pseudo ranging, travel time is measured by___________.
A. PRN code.
B. Noise code.
C. SPS.
D. GPS.

455.  Satellite to user range can be calculated by using which of the following methods?.
A. Relative positioning.
B. Absolute positioning.
C. Carrier wave.
D. Pseudo ranging.

456.  For obtaining relative time of transmission and reception of signals, it is required to calculate clock offset..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

457.  GPS can also be known as__________.
A. GOS.
B. Arc GIS.
C. GIS.
D. NavStar.

458.  Determine the distance between satellite and user if the time difference can be calculated as 3 min..
A. 54*1019 m.
B. 45*102 m.
C. 54*109 m.
D. 45*109 m.

459.  In order to determine the satellite to user range, which of the following is exceptionally required?.
A. Time difference of polarized signals.
B. Time difference of signals.
C. Time difference of refracted signals.
D. Time difference of reflected signals.
Answer = Time difference of signals

A. Status of the signals.
B. Status of the reflection.
C. Status of the satellites.
D. Status of the aperture.
Answer = Status of the satellites

461.  Trilateration is a plane surveying method..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

462.  Accuracy of the position through can be influenced by ____________.
A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Signal strength.
D. Position of satellite.

463.  Error in altitude will be twice the horizontal error..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

464.  Which of the following is having same principle as that of determining the position in GPS?.
A. Compass.
B. Traversing.
C. Trisection.
D. Resection.

465.  Among the following, which indicates the correct set of methods followed for fixing position?.
A. Pseudo ranging, absolute positioning.
B. Carrier wave, pseudo ranging.
C. Absolute positioning, relative positioning.
D. Carrier wave, absolute positioning.
Answer = Carrier wave, pseudo ranging

466.  Which is the main parameter used in pseudo ranging?.
A. Time.
B. Distance.
C. Velocity.
D. Frequency.

467.  GPS user solution depends on which of the following?.
A. Absolute positioning.
B. Satellite vehicle.
C. Space vehicle.
D. Relative positioning.

468.  Satellite generates which type of signals?.
A. Visible rays.
B. X-rays.
C. Cosmic waves.

469.  Which of the following indicates the principle of GPS?.
A. Resection.
B. Trilateration.
C. Trisection.
D. Traversing.

470.  Which among the following is used to locate an object?.
A. GPS.
B. GIS.
C. RS.
D. IRS.

471.  Which of the following can indicate the correct set of GPS segments?.
C. Control, user.

472.  Which of the following segments can use GPS receiver?.
B. Space segment.
C. Control segment.
D. User segment.

473.  Which of the following indicate the functioning of the Space segment?.
B. Space signals.
C. User signals.
D. Control signals.

474.  Which among the following is more accurate in its output?.
A. Absolute positioning.
B. Resection method.
C. Modern GPS surveying.
D. Conventional GPS method.

475.  Absolute positioning is not useful in precise GPS..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

476.  Precise positioning service is having an accuracy range of____________.
A. 1-5 m.
B. 5-9 m.
C. 10-12 m.
D. 15-20 m.

477.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of classification for absolute positioning?.
A. Carrier wave, pseudo range.
B. Pseudo range, SPS.
C. SPS, carrier wave.
D. Absolute positioning, SPS.
Answer = Carrier wave, pseudo range

478.  Which of the following process is adopted in case of navigation system?.
A. SPS.
B. Carrier wave.
C. Relative positioning.
D. Pseudo ranging.

479.  Which process can obtain more accuracy in position?.
A. Carrier wave method.
B. Absolute positioning.
C. Relative positioning.
D. Resection method.

480.  Which of the following will affect the accuracy of the GPS positioning?.
B. Strength of signal.
C. Position of satellite.
D. Atomic clock.

481.  Which among the following can act as a cause wrong GPS tracking?.
A. Refraction of signal.
B. Strength of signal.
C. Atomic clock.
D. Reflection of satellite signals.
Answer = Reflection of satellite signals

482.  The accuracy speed of the GPS depends on ______________.
A. Reflection of signal.
B. Signal blockage.
C. Refraction of signal.
D. Position of satellite.

483.  The clock used in GPS will synchronize to__________.
A. Greenwich.
B. ITC.
C. UTC.
D. IS.

484.  Which of the following doesn't describe the use of hydrographic surveying?.
A. Laying an Alignment.
B. Making underground investigations.
D. Establishing mean sea level.
Answer = Establishing mean sea level

485.  The process of measuring depth below the water surface is called_______.
A. Sounding.
B. Chaining.
C. Traversing.
D. Compass traversing.

486.  Which among the following can be possessed by the horizontal control?.
A. Chaining.
B. Triangulation.
C. Theodolite.
D. Compass.

487.  Transit tape is used in case of small survey..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

488.  Gauge readings are obtained after_______________.
A. Compass survey.
B. Chaining.
C. Sounding.
D. Traversing.

489.  Which of the following doesn't come under the category of shore line survey?.
A. Delineation of shore line.
B. Location of shore details.
C. Determination of the low and high water lines.
D. Sounding.

490.  Which among the following doesn't indicate the purpose of sounding?.
A. Volume measurements.
C. Making sub-aqueous investigations.
D. Measurement of area.

491.  What will be the salinity of the sea water if the temperature of the sea water is about 45˚C and the velocity of sound is given as 1678 m/s?.
A. 314.62.
B. 214.62.
C. 134.62.
D. 143.62.

492.  Among the following, which is having more prominence while conducting sounding?.
A. Labor.
B. Signal.
C. Sounding pole.
D. Suitable climatic conditions.

493.  What is length of the sounding rod or pole?.
A. 7-8 m.
B. 5-8 m.
C. 10-18 m.
D. 15-18 m.

494.  The velocity of sound in sea can be determined by ____________.
A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Polarization.
D. Sounding machine.

495.  Determine the velocity of the sound in sea water if the surface temperature can be given as 32˚C and the salinity is given as 2.43..
A. 1590.6 m/s.
B. 1509.6 m/s.
C. 5109.6 m/s.
D. 1590.9 m/s.

496. Find the value of the surface temperature, if the velocity of the sound in sea water can be given as 2000 m/s and the salinity as 5.32..
A. 57˚C.
B. 75˚C.
C. 52˚C.
D. 72˚C.

497.  River gauge is used to measure _______.
A. Still level.
B. Water level.
C. Turbulence.
D. Current.

498.  Which of the following instrument uses rating curve?.
A. River gauge.
B. Rain gauge.
C. Tipping bucket.
D. Marine gauge.

499.  Rating curve can be used for __________.
A. Reflecting signal.
B. Determining strength of signal.
C. Stage measurements.
D. Polarization of signal.

500.  Which of the following constructions are used in case of the application of river gauge?.
A. Culverts.
B. Bridges.
C. Dams.
D. Weirs and notches.

501.  Which of the following equipments is used in stream gauge?.
A. Stilling well.
B. Ultrasonic device.
C. Par shall fume.
D. Stage encoder.

502.  Which of the following doesn't come under the classification of water level gauge?.
A. Ultrasonic device.
B. Par shall fume.
C. Stage encoder.
D. Electro-magnetic gauge.

503.  Current meter is used in case of __________.
A. Ultrasonic device.
B. Staff gauge.
C. Stage encoder.
D. Electro-magnetic gauge.

504.  Which of the following classification of water level gauge can measure the water level?.
A. Stage encoder.
B. Electro-magnetic gauge.
C. Ultrasonic device.
D. Staff gauge.

505.  A potentiometer is used in stage encoder..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

506.  Which of the following is used for suspending a hydro grapher?.
A. Cloth tape.
B. Cable ways.
C. Wires.
D. Suspenders.

507.  Rain gauge is used for ________.
A. Hydrological survey.
B. Measuring precipitation.
C. Marine survey.
D. River survey.

508.  Rain gauge is expressed in terms of _________.
A. Decimeters.
B. Meters.
C. Centimeters.
D. Millimeters.

509.  Calculate the total rainfall in an interval, where volume of the bucket is taken as 24cu. m and time interval N = 3..
A. 72cu. m.
B. 2cu. m.
C. 27cu. m.
D. 72sq. m.

510.  Find the least count of the instrument used in case of rainfall determination, if the volume of the bucket is 50cu. m and the area of the funnel is about 21 sq. m..
A. 3.38 m.
B. 2.83 m.
C. 2.38 m.
D. 4.38 m.

511.  What would be the rate of rainfall if the value of N can be given as 2 and the difference in time can be given as 24 sec with the L.C of the instrument as 1m?.
A. 50m-sec.
B. 48m-sec.
C. 42m-sec.
D. 49m-sec.

512.  Tipping bucket used in the rain gauge will turn under the action of ___________.
A. Battery.
B. Hand movement.
C. Gravity.
D. Motor.

513.  Which of the following rain gauge equipment is used in case of remote areas?.
A. Reflective rain gauge.
B. Acoustic rain gauge.
C. Optical rain gauge.
D. Tipping bucket.

514.  Rain gauge is also known as __________.
A. Udometer.
B. Opto meter.
C. Luda meter.
D. Rio meter.

515.  Which of the following will not come under the classification of rain gauge?.
A. Tipping bucket gauge..
B. Reflective rain gauge.
C. Optical rain gauge.
D. Acoustic rain gauge.

516.  Acoustic rain gauge can also be known as__________.
A. Hydro gauge.
B. Hydro remote.
C. Hydrophone.
D. Hydro cable.

517.  Which of the following survey is adopted while inspecting a vessel and the systems of boats?.
A. Marine survey.
B. Rain gauge survey.
C. River gauge survey.
D. Land survey.

518.  Which of the following devices can be used in marine survey?.
A. RS.
B. GPS.
C. GIS.
D. RMS digital multi-meter.

519.  The time range of marine survey can be given as________.
A. 3-18 hrs.
B. 2-8 hrs.
C. 3-8 hrs.
D. 13-18 hrs.

520.  Time range of the marine survey will depend on _________.
A. Strength of signal.
B. Size of boat.
C. Atomic clock.
D. GPS location.

521.  Yacht survey involves in ________.
A. Detailed inspection of the boat.
B. Detailed inspection of the boat.
C. Detailed inspection of the boat.
D. Detailed inspection of the boat.
Answer = Detailed inspection of the boat

522.  Which of the following will not come under the marine surveying category?.
A. Cargo survey.
B. Water survey.
C. Yacht survey.
D. Machinery survey.

523.  Which of the following indicates the necessity of the marine surveying?.
A. To have an idea about the still water features.
B. To have an idea about the water features.
C. To have an idea about the ground water features.
D. To have an idea about the underwater features.

524.  The problems occurred in the boat can be mitigated by _________.
A. Rain survey.
B. Vehicle survey.
C. Marine survey.
D. Water survey.

525.  Cargo surveying involves in ___________.
A. Calculation of the cargo's efficiency.
B. Calculation of the cargo's volume.
C. Calculation of the cargo's area.
D. Calculation of the cargo's turbulence.
Answer = Calculation of the cargo's volume

526.  Marine surveying is a necessary in case of boat designing..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

527.  Which of the following can be identified as the objective of water supply scheme?.
A. Chlorination of water.
B. Treat water.
C. Safe water supply.
D. Ionization of water.

528.  Which of the following indicates the component of a water supply scheme?.
A. Impure water.
B. Chlorination of water.
C. Sub surface water.
D. Intake of the water.
Answer = Intake of the water

529.  Surface water can act as a source of water in water supply scheme..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

530.  While considering the design period, which must be given more priority?.
A. Area of land.
B. Population.
C. Usage of water.
D. Arrangement of pipes.

531.  The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________.
A. 50 yr.
B. 20 yr.
C. 30 yr.
D. 10 yr.

532.  Which of the following can be designated as an intake structure?.
A. Culvert.
B. River.
C. Dam.
D. Reservoir.

533.  Which type of water is generally used in the treatment of water?.
A. Chlorinated water.
B. Treated water.
C. Raw water.
D. Sulphated water.

534.  Which of the following does not act as a major factor that effects per capita demand?.
A. Human activity.
B. Industrial activities.
C. Usage of water.
D. Placement of pipe.

535.  The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as ___________.
A. Daily demand.
B. Monthly demand.
C. Annual demand.
D. Per capita demand.

536.  Which of the following can act as a type of variation in water demand?.
A. Monthly variation.
B. Annual variation.
C. Crop variation.
D. 10 year variation.

537.  Which survey involves in the collection of information about the elevation of points?.
A. Topographic survey.
B. Marine survey.
C. Township survey.

538.  Which of the following describes the usage of the topographic survey?.
A. Sanitary line maps.
B. Water line maps.
C. Electric line maps.
D. Topographic maps.

539.  Among the following, which is not a principle of the topographic survey?.
A. Establishing horizontal and vertical control.
B. Orientation of each survey.
C. Orientation of only main station.
D. Work with most accurate methods.
Answer = Orientation of only main station

540.  Horizontal distance measurement can be done by using ________.
A. Chaining.
B. Tachymetry.
C. Theodolite survey.
D. Compass survey.

541.  Difference in elevation levels can be determined by using ____________.
A. Chaining.
B. Vertical staff.
C. Leveling staff.
D. Level telescope.

542.  Which of the following doesn't include in the method of the topological survey?.
A. Vertical distance.
B. Horizontal distance.
C. Direction.
D. Difference in elevation.

543.  Vernier scale is used in which of the following methodology?.
A. Horizontal angle.
B. Direction.
C. Vertical angle.
D. Marine survey.

544.  Which of the following is not a type of horizontal angle used in case of topographic survey?.
A. Bearing.
B. Azimuth.
C. Horizontal angle.
D. Deflection angle.

545.  Open traverse is used in case of topological survey..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

546.  Shape of the earth can act as an error in case of topological survey..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

547.  Which of the following must be considered while conducting a road survey?.
A. Density.
B. Alignment of the curves.
C. Specific gravity.
D. Atmospheric conidtion.
Answer = Alignment of the curves

548.  Skid resistance is calculated while conducting road survey..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

549.  Which of the following indicates the objective of road survey?.
A. Specific gravity.
B. Density.
C. Pavement design.
D. Detailed layout of road way.

550.  Density of the road is not taken into consideration..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

551.  Which of the following will come under the manual method of road survey?.
A. GIS.
B. Walking and windshield survey.
C. Walking survey.
D. Windshield survey.

552.  Which of the following software's can be useful while conducting road survey?.
A. GIS.
B. RS.
D. Revit.

553.  Which of the following road survey method is a time consuming method?.
A. Walking and windshield survey.
B. Walking survey.
C. Windshield survey.
D. GIS.

554.  Which of the following procedure involves both technological and human interpretation?.
A. GIS.
B. Windshield survey.
C. Walking survey.
D. Walking and windshield survey.
Answer = Walking and windshield survey

555.  Among the interpretation methods available, which is opted as the best?.
B. RS.
C. GIS.
D. Walking survey.

556.  Which of the following is included in the road project survey report?.
A. Location.
B. Terrain.
C. Slope.

557.  Tunneling is required in case of ____________.
A. Laying pavement.
C. On ground passage.
D. Underground passage.

558.  The line at which the tunnel wall breaks from sloping outward can be given as _________.
A. Spring line.
B. Oval line.
C. Centre line.
D. Middle line.

559.  Which of the following should be considered while aligning a tunnel?.
A. Atmospheric conditions.
B. Hydrological conditions.
C. Climatic conditions.
D. Surface limits.

560.  Among the following, which doesn't belong to tunnel classification?.
A. Firm ground.
B. Running ground.
C. Rocky ground.
D. Soft ground.

561.  Which method can be adopted if full face excavation is not possible?.
A. Back bearing method.
B. Plotting.
C. Trenching.
D. Benching.

562.  Among the following, which can be adopted for providing support for soft strata?.
A. Bents of aluminum.
B. Bents of iridium.
C. Bents of steel.
D. Bents of plastic.

563.  A steel cylinder which is pushed in the soft soil is determined as ________.
A. Jar born.
B. Shield.
C. Rod.
D. Pole.

564.  Which method can be adopted in case of rock tunneling?.
A. Full face method.
B. Benching.
C. Tracing.
D. Back bearing method.

565.  Which of the following can act as an alternative for blasting?.
A. Tunneling.
B. Continuous blasting.
C. Sequential blasting.
D. Fire-setting.

566.  Which of the following involves in the sequence of rocky strata?.
A. Marking profile.
B. Placing rocks.
C. Improving foul gases.
D. Recording values.

567.  Which of the following is a classification of irrigation survey?.
A. Direct method.
B. Weir method.
C. Notch method.
D. River method.

568.  The area that can be irrigated by a canal can be determined as ___________.
A. Canal area.
C. Irrigated area.
D. Commanded area.

569.  Percentage of irrigation proposed to be irrigated annually yields ________.
A. Density of irrigation.
B. Intensity of irrigation.
C. S.G of irrigation.
D. Extent of irrigation.

570.  Storage irrigation method is also known as__________.
A. Weir method.
B. Direct method.
C. Indirect method.
D. Notch method.

571.  Which of the following methods is adopted in case of flow of excess water?.
A. Weir method.
B. Traverse irrigation method.
C. Direct irrigation method.
D. Storage irrigation method.

572.  Which of the following indicates a storage structure?.
A. Dam.
B. Weir.
C. Notch.
D. Culvert.

573.  Which of the following can be used as a diversion structure?.
A. Dam.
B. Barrage.
C. Reservoir.
D. Culvert.

574.  Which of the following can be indicated as the classification of the surface irrigation method?.
B. Irrigation method.
C. Flooding method.
D. Drowning method.

575.  A small basin is adopted in case of ____________.
A. Sandy soil.
B. Clay soil.
C. Rocky soil.
D. Metamorphic soil.

576.  Flat land can adopt large basins..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

577.  Which of the following can fulfill the objective of the airport survey?.
A. Electric line map.
B. Characteristics of soil.
C. Water line map.
D. Cable line map.

578.  Which of the following comes under the category of airport survey?.
A. Cable lines.
B. Electric lines.
C. Poles.
D. Drainage survey.

579.  Which of the following data is used in case of meteorological survey?.
A. Fog intensity.
B. Soil.
C. Rock.
D. Rain.

580.  Which among the following will help in the designing of pavement and airport drainage system?.
A. Marine survey.
B. Topographical survey.
C. Meteorological survey.
D. Soil survey.

581.  Determination of best location of airport can be done by _____________.
A. Topographical survey.
B. Marine survey.
C. Soil survey.
D. Airport survey.

582.  Which among the following comes under the category of soil sampling method?.
A. Deep boring.
B. Test pits.
C. Probing.
D. Workability.

583.  Which of the following indicates the characteristic of the soil to be present for any construction?.
A. Color of soil.
B. Density.
C. Specific gravity.
D. Durability.

584.  The study of features like hills is done in case of ________________.
A. Township survey.
B. Topographical survey.
C. Marine survey.
D. Airport survey.

585.  Which of the following will come under the preliminary information for airport survey?.
A. Climatic conditions.
B. Surveying methods.
C. Area of the map.
D. Directions.

586.  Cross wind is perpendicular to the direction of travel..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

587.  Which of the following can be considered as inland water transportation?.
A. Transportation by river.
B. Transportation by culvert.
C. Transportation on bridge.
D. Transportation by barrage.

588.  Which of the following can act as an advantage of water transportation?.
A. Tides.
B. Less development.
C. Costly mode of transportation.
D. Cheap mode of transportation.
Answer = Cheap mode of transportation

589.  Goods can be transported within less time..
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

590.  A basin which can protect water well from the actions of wind and waves can be designated as___________.
A. Quarry.
B. Basin.
C. Harbor.
D. Port.

591.  Which of the following is considered in case stable floating condition of ship?.
A. Vertical measurement.
B. Horizontal measurement.
C. Linear measurement.
D. Draft.

592.  Which of the following is used as a basis for the classification of harbor?.
A. Protection.
B. Placement.
C. Area.
D. Climatic condition.

593.  Which of the following will not come under the category of harbor classification?.
A. Natural harbor.
B. Semi artificial harbor.
C. Artificial harbor.
D. Semi natural harbor.

594.  Bombay harbor will come under the classification of ____________.
A. Semi natural harbor.
B. Artificial harbor.
C. Natural harbor.
D. Semi artificial harbor.

595.  On what basis a harbor can be designated as natural roadstead?.
A. Semi artificial harbor.
B. Artificial harbor.
C. Navigable channel.
D. Semi natural harbor.

596.  Which of the following harbor areas are having artificial protection?.
A. Vishakhapatnam port.
B. Mumbai port.
D. Yanam port.

597.  Township survey is also known as________.
A. Congressional township.
B. Harbor survey.
C. Land survey.
D. Airport survey.

598.  Which of the following indicates the purpose of the township survey?.
A. Establishing boundaries for harbor.
B. Establishing boundaries for government.
C. Establishing boundaries for public.
D. Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership.
Answer = Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership

599.  Among the following, which map is necessary for the establishment of the township?.
A. Environmental map.
B. Terrain map.
C. Property map.
D. Area map.

600.  Leveling staff is used in the process of city survey..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

601.  Which surveying is the best method in case of preparation of topographic maps?.
A. Plane table surveying.
B. Theodolite surveying.
C. Compass surveying.
D. Traverse surveying.

602.  __________scale is used in case of preparation of street maps..
A. Least.
B. Medium.
C. Small.
D. Large.

603.  Which among the following can be located by using street maps?.
A. Property points.
B. Elevation points.
C. Pipe lines.

604.  Bench marks are located in ______________.
A. Electric line maps.
B. Street maps.
D. Pipe line maps.

605.  Property map preparation is done by ____________.
A. Least scale.
B. Medium scale.
C. Small scale.
D. Large scale.

606.  Which map uses more specific symbols for representation?.
A. Electric line map.
B. Topology map.
C. Water supply map.
D. Property map.

607.  Township survey is also known as________.
A. Congressional township.
B. Harbor survey.
C. Land survey.
D. Airport survey.

608.  Which of the following indicates the purpose of the township survey?.
A. Establishing boundaries for harbor.
B. Establishing boundaries for government.
C. Establishing boundaries for public.
D. Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership.
Answer = Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership

609.  Among the following, which map is necessary for the establishment of the township?.
A. Environmental map.
B. Terrain map.
C. Property map.
D. Area map.

610.  Leveling staff is used in the process of city survey..
A. FALSE.
B. TRUE.
C. Nothing can be said.
D. None of the mentioned.

611.  Which surveying is the best method in case of preparation of topographic maps?.
A. Plane table surveying.
B. Theodolite surveying.
C. Compass surveying.
D. Traverse surveying.

612.  __________scale is used in case of preparation of street maps..
A. Least.
B. Medium.
C. Small.
D. Large.

613.  Which among the following can be located by using street maps?.
A. Property points.
B. Elevation points.
C. Pipe lines.

614.  Bench marks are located in ______________.
A. Electric line maps.
B. Street maps.