1. The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Meter Gauge is_______________?.

A. 20 mm/sec

B. 35 mm/sec

C. 55 mm/sec

D. 65 mm/sec.

Answer = 35 mm/sec

2. Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is__________________?.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5.

Answer = 4

3. Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is_________________?.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. none of the above.

Answer = 2

4. Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is_________________?.

A. 1.83 m

B. 2.25 m

C. 3.35 m

D. 4.30 m.

Answer = 3.35 m

5. The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by________________?.

A. hook bolts

B. dog spikes

C. fang bolts

D. rail screws.

Answer = hook bolts

6. The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is___________________?.

A. 25 mm

B. 40 mm

C. 50 mm

D. 10mm.

Answer = 25 mm

7. Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the__________________?.

A. wooden sleepers

B. CST-9 sleepers

C. steel trough sleepers

D. concrete sleepers.

Answer = wooden sleepers

8. Minimum composite sleeper index pres-cried on Indian Railways for a track sleeper is_______________?.

A. 552

B. 783

C. 1352

D. 1455.

Answer = 783

9. Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is____________________?.

A. 275x25x13cm

B. 180x20x11.5 cm

C. 225x23x13 cm

D. 250x26x12 cm.

Answer = 275x25x13cm

10. Sleeper density in India is normally kept as___________________?.

A. M + 2 to M + 7

B. MtoM+2

C. M + 5toM+10

D. M.

Answer = M + 2 to M + 7

11. The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails is___________________?.

A. flat mild steel bearing plate

B. mild steel canted bearing plate

C. cast iron anti creep bearing plate

D. none of the above.

Answer = mild steel canted bearing plate

12. Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints ?.

A. CST-9 sleeper

B. steel trough sleeper

C. wooden sleeper

D. concrete sleeper.

Answer = wooden sleeper

13. Creep is the_______________?.

A. longitudinal movement of rail

B. lateral movement of rail

C. vertical movement of rail

D. difference in level of two rails.

Answer = longitudinal movement of rail

14. Staggered joints are generally provided__________________?.

A. on curves

B. on straight track

C. when two different rail sections are required to be joined

D. none of the above.

Answer = on curves

15. The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted on Indian Railways is___________________?.

A. 6.10 m

B. 8.84 m

C. 10.21m

D. 10.82 m.

Answer = 10.21m

16. The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian Railways is______________________?.

A. 4.27 m

B. 4.88 m

C. 5.49 m

D. 6.10 m.

Answer = 4.88 m

17. The width of foot for 90 R rail section is__________________?.

A. 100 mm

B. 122.2 mm

C. 136.5 mm

D. 146.0 mm.

Answer = 136.5 mm

18. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are deflected at ends. These rails are called_________________?.

A. roaring rails

B. hogged rails

C. corrugated rails

D. buckled rails.

Answer = hogged rails

19. Fish plate is in contact with rail at________________?.

A. web of rail

B. fishing plane

C. head of rail

D. foot of rail.

Answer = fishing plane

20. The main function of a fish plate is________________?.

A. to join the two rails together

B. to join rails with the sleeper

C. to allow rail to expand and contract freely

D. none of the above.

Answer = to join the two rails together

21. 60 R rails are mostly used in__________________?.

A. Broad Gauge

B. Metre Gauge

C. Narrow Gauge

D. none of the above.

Answer = Metre Gauge

22. Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than____________________?.

A. 450 MPa

B. 500 MPa

C. 700 MPa

D. 850 MPa.

Answer = 700 MPa

23. The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is_________________?.

A. 6155 mm2

B. 6615 mm2

C. 7235 mm2

D. 7825 mm2.

Answer = 6615 mm2

24. Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its__________________?.

A. head

B. web

C. foot

D. head and foot both.

Answer = head

25. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively __________________?.

A. 12 m and 12 m

B. 12 m and 13 m

C. 13 m and 12 m

D. 13 m and 13 m.

Answer = 13 m and 12 m

26. The rail is designated by its__________________?.

A. length

B. weight

C. cross-section

D. weight per unit length.

Answer = weight per unit length

27. Two important constituents in the com-position of steel used for rail are_________________?.

A. carbon and silicon

B. manganese and phosphorous

C. carbon and manganese

D. carbon and sulfur.

Answer = carbon and manganese

28. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be taken as______________?.

A. 120 mm

B. 160 mm

C. 200 mm

D. 300 mm.

Answer = 160 mm

29. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to________________?.

A. only shear stresses

B. only tensile stresses

C. both (A) and (B)

D. none of the above.

Answer = only shear stresses

30. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on_________________?.

A. net area and gross area

B. gross area and net area

C. net area in both cases

D. gross area in both cases.

Answer = gross area and net area

31. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be the one which________________?.

A. is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group

B. is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group

C. gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm

D. gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm.

Answer = gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm

32. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter is__________________?.

A. 1.0 mm

B. 1.5 mm

C. 2.0 mm

D. 2.5 mm.

Answer = 1.5 mm

33. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per Unwin's formula will be__________________?.

A. 16 mm

B. 20 mm

C. 24 mm

D. 27 mm.

Answer = 24 mm

34. The heaviest I-section for same depth is_________________?.

A. ISMB

B. ISLB

C. ISHB

D. ISWB.

Answer = ISHB

35. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?.

A. lap joint

B. butt joint with single cover plate

C. butt joint with double cover plates

D. none of the above.

Answer = butt joint with double cover plates

36. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate__________________?.

A. fully by direct bearing

B. fully through fastenings

C. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings

D. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings.

Answer = 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings

37. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided ?.

A. tension failure of the plate

B. shear failure of the rivet

C. shear failure of the plate

D. crushing failure of the rivet.

Answer = shear failure of the plate

38. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are________________?.

A. stronger

B. weaker

C. equally strong

D. any of the above.

Answer = stronger

39. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is_________________?.

A. 40%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 70%.

Answer = 60%

40. Bolts are most suitable to carry_________________?.

A. shear

B. bending

C. axial tension

D. shear and bending.

Answer = axial tension

41. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is________________?.

A. black bolt

B. ordinary unfinished bolt

C. turned and fitted bolt

D. high strength bolt.

Answer = high strength bolt

42. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than___________________?.

A. two times the weld size

B. four times the weld size

C. six times the weld size

D. weld size.

Answer = four times the weld size

43. A butt weld is specified by__________________?.

A. effective throat thickness

B. plate thickness

C. size of weld

D. penetration thickness.

Answer = effective throat thickness

44. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is________________?.

A. zero

B. 10

C. 100

D. infinity.

Answer = zero

45. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction is taken as________________?.

A. 1.8 L

B. L

C. 1.1 L

D. 1.5 L.

Answer = 1.1 L

46. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is_____________________?.

A. lesser of 200 mm and 12 t

B. lesser of 200 mm and 161

C. lesser of 300 mm and 32 t

D. lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle.

Answer = lesser of 200 mm and 12 t

47. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by wind or seismic forces is________________?.

A. 150

B. 180

C. 250

D. 350.

Answer = 250

48. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index (n) is_______________?.

A. 1.0

B. 1.4

C. 1.8

D. 2.0.

Answer = 1.4

49. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed load is___________________?.

A. 180

B. 200

C. 250

D. 350.

Answer = 180

50. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as________________?.

A. 0.67 L

B. 0.8 L

C. L

D. 1.5 L.

Answer = 0.8 L

51. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually________________?.

A. more

B. less

C. equal

D. none of the above.

Answer = more

52. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is_______________?.

A. 1:1

B. 1 : V2

C. V2 : 1

D. 2: 1.

Answer = V2 : 1

53. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because________________?.

A. it is uneconomical

B. it cannot carry the load safely

C. it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections

D. all of the above.

Answer = it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections

54. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by______________?.

A. lacing

B. battening

C. tie plates

D. perforated cover plates.

Answer = lacing

55. The use of tie plates in laced columns is_________________?.

A. prohibited

B. not prohibited

C. permitted at start and end of lacing system only

D. permitted between two parts of the lacing.

Answer = permitted at start and end of lacing system only

56. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be between____________________?.

A. 10° to 30°

B. 30° to 40°

C. 40° to 70°

D. 90°.

Answer = 40° to 70°

57. The effective length of a battened column is increased by_________________?.

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%.

Answer = 10%

58. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed________________?.

A. 100

B. 120

C. 145

D. 180.

Answer = 145

59. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using________________?.

A. vertical intermediate stiffener

B. horizontal stiffener at neutral axis

C. bearing stiffener

D. none of the above.

Answer = vertical intermediate stiffener

60. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to weather, is______________?.

A. 5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm.

Answer = 6 mm

61. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not exceed________________?.

A. 121

B. 161

C. 201

D. 251.

Answer = 161

62. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to__________________?.

A. transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one

B. prevent buckling of web

C. decrease the effective depth of web

D. prevent excessive deflection.

Answer = prevent buckling of web

63. Gantry girders are designed to resist_________________?.

A. lateral loads

B. longitudinal loads and vertical loads

C. lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads

D. lateral and longitudinal loads.

Answer = lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads

64. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from________________?.

A. L/3 to L/5

B. L/4to2L/5

C. L/3 to L/2

D. 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span.

Answer = L/3 to L/5

65. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than_______________?.

A. 26'/2°

B. 30°

C. 35°

D. 40°.

Answer = 30°

66. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid__________________?.

A. axial force in rafter

B. shear force in rafter

C. deflection of rafter

D. bending moment in rafter.

Answer = bending moment in rafter

67. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as_______________?.

A. pa V

B. paV2

C. p a (1/V)

D. paV”2.

Answer = paV2

68. The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is taken as_______________?.

A. ± 0.2

B. ±0.5

C. ± 0.7

D. 0.

Answer = ± 0.7

69. The risk coefficient k, depends on__________________?.

A. mean probable design life of structures

B. basic wind speed

C. both (A) and (B)

D. none of the above.

Answer = both (A) and (B)

70. Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than_________________?.

A. 10% of wall area

B. 20% of wall area

C. 30% of wall area

D. 50% of wall area.

Answer = 20% of wall area

71. The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided are_________________?.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7.

Answer = 5

72. The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed as________________?.

A. 95.0 MPa on net area

B. 105.5 MPa on net area

C. 105.5 MPa on gross area

D. 150.0 MPa on gross area.

Answer = 105.5 MPa on net area

73. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs ?.

A. angle section

B. channel section

C. box type section

D. any of the above.

Answer = box type section

74. The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist_________________?.

A. horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only

B. horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads

C. column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake

D. column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake.

Answer = horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads

75. Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to_______________?.

A. 6t

B. 101

C. 121

D. 161 where t is thickness of thinner plate being connected.

Answer = 101

76. If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge are not braced, then the bridge is called________________?.

A. deck type

B. through type

C. half through type

D. double deck type.

Answer = half through type

77. The sway bracing is designed to transfer____________________?.

A. 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

B. 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

C. 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

D. 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing.

Answer = 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

78. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called__________________?.

A. sway bracing

B. portal bracing

C. top lateral bracing

D. bottom lateral bracing.

Answer = portal bracing

79. The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as_______________?.

A. 0.5 D

B. 0.68 D

C. 0.88 D

D. D.

Answer = 0.88 D

80. In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for________________?.

A. rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth

B. all rectangular beams

C. solid circular beams only

D. all square cross-section beams.

Answer = rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth

81. The mechanism method and the statical method give__________________?.

A. lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure

B. upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure

C. lower bound on the strength of structure

D. upper bound on the strength of structure.

Answer = upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure

82. Shape factor is a property which depends________________?.

A. only on the ultimate stress of the material

B. only on the yield stress of the material

C. only on the geometry of the section

D. both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material.

Answer = only on the geometry of the section

83. The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies___________________?.

A. equilibrium and mechanism conditions

B. equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

C. mechanism and plastic moment conditions

D. equilibrium condition only.

Answer = equilibrium and mechanism conditions

84. The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus__________________?.

A. is equal to 1

B. is always less than 1

C. is always greater than 1

D. can be less than 1.

Answer = is always greater than 1

85. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis ?.

A. equilibrium condition

B. yield condition

C. plastic moment condition

D. mechanism condition.

Answer = equilibrium condition

86. In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per IS:800 shall be________________?.

A. 0.55 Awfy

B. 0.65 Awfy

C. 0.75 Awfy

D. 0.85 Awfy where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel.

Answer = 0.55 Awfy

87. The moment of inertia of the pair of vertical stiffeners about the center line of the web should not be less than__________________?.

A. 1.5dV/C

B. 1.5d¥/C

C. 1.5d¥/C2

D. 1.5dY/C3.

Answer = 1.5d¥/C2

88. For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section will give larger value of minimum radius of gyration?.

A. equal angles back to back

B. unqual legged angles with long legs back to back

C. unequal legged angles with short legs back to back

D. both (B) or (C).

Answer = unqual legged angles with long legs back to back

89. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as________________?.

A. stringer beam

B. lintel beam

C. spandrel beam

D. header beam.

Answer = spandrel beam

90. Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of_________________?.

A. bottom chord area

B. top chord area

C. effective span of bridge

D. heaviest axle load of engine.

Answer = bottom chord area

91. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with__________________?.

A. decrease in h/t ratio

B. increase in h/t ratio

C. decrease in thickness

D. increase in height where 'h' is height and t is thickness.

Answer = increase in h/t ratio

92. Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as tension members should not be more than_________________?.

A. 500 mm

B. 600 mm

C. 1000 mm

D. 300 mm.

Answer = 1000 mm

93. In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon________________?.

A. shear in rivets

B. compression in rivets

C. tension in rivets

D. strength of rivets in bearing.

Answer = tension in rivets

94. For rivets in tension with counter-sunk heads, the tensile value shall be____________________?.

A. reduced by 25 %

B. reduced by 33.3%

C. increased by 25 %

D. increased by 33.3 %.

Answer = reduced by 33.3%

95. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to external loads, shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of___________________?.

A. 75 t2/h

B. 125 t3/h2

C. 125 t2/h

D. 175 t2/h.

Answer = 125 t2/h

96. Lug angles_________________?.

A. are used to reduce the length of connection.

B. are unequal angles.

C. increases shear lag.

D. all the above.

Answer = are used to reduce the length of connection.

97. The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for cleaning and repainting, should be___________________?.

A. 4.5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm.

Answer = 8 mm

98. The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the base is________________?.

A. 1.5

B. 1.7

C. 2.0

D. 2.34.

Answer = 2.34

99. In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is_________________?.

A. displacement

B. load

C. slope

D. moment.

Answer = displacement

100. Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is_______________?.

A. equal to load factor in determinate structures

B. more than the load factor in determinate structures

C. less than the load factor in determinate structures

D. unpredictable.

Answer = more than the load factor in determinate structures

101. Load factor is____________________?.

A. always equal to factor of safety

B. always less than factor of safety

C. always greater than factor of safety

D. sometimes greater than factor of safety.

Answer = always greater than factor of safety

102. The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies_______________?.

A. equilibrium and mechanism conditions

B. equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

C. mechanism and plastic moment conditions

D. equilibrium condition only.

Answer = equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

103. The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is________________?.

A. linear

B. parabolic

C. constant moment for all curvatures

D. constant curvature for all moments.

Answer = constant moment for all curvatures

104. The elastic strain for steel is about_________________?.

A. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maxi-mum strain

B. 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maxi-mum strain

C. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain

D. 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum strain.

Answer = 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain

105. In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken as_________________?.

A. 1.18

B. 1.414

C. 1.67

D. 1.81.

Answer = 1.18